1st Year Chemistry Chapter 07 Solutions MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Seven "Solutions" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Seven objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.

11th Chemistry Notes
First Year Chemistry Chapter Seven Notes


You will learn in this Chapter:

  • Concentration Units of Solution
  • Types of Solution
  • Raoult’s Law
  • Vapour Pressure of Liquid-Liquid Solutions
  • Solubility and Solubility Curves
  • Colligative Properties of Solutions
  • Energetic of Solution
  • Hydration and Hydrolysis


Q.1: 10g NaOH is dissolved in 1000g water. The molality of NaOH is?
  1. 1m
  2. 0.5m
  3. 4m
  4. 0.25m
D
Q.2: 250cm3 of 0.2 molar potassium sulphate solution is mixed with 250cm3 of 0.2 molar KCl solution. The molar concentration of K+ ions is?
  1. 0.2 molar
  2. 0.3 molar
  3. 0.25 molar
  4. 0.35 molar
B
Q.3: The molality of pure water is?
  1. 1
  2. 55.5
  3. 18
  4. 6
B
Q.4: Molal boiling point constant is the ratio of the elevation in the boiling to?
  1. Molarity
  2. Mole fraction of solvent
  3. Molality
  4. Mole fraction of the solute
C
Q.5: The number of molecules of sugar in 1dm3 of 1M sugar solution is?
  1. 6.02 x 1023
  2. 3.42 x 6.02 x 1022
  3. 6.02 x 1020
  4. None of the above
A
Q.6: Colligative properties can be used for calculating?
  1. The density of a compound
  2. The lattice energy of a compound
  3. The molecular mass of a compound
  4. All of the above
C
Q.7: 18g glucose is dissolved in 90g water. The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to?
  1. 1/5
  2. 1/51
  3. 5.1
  4. 1/55.5
B
Q.8: A solution has 92g ethanol, 96g methanol, and 90g water. Mole fraction of water in the solution is?
  1. 0.1
  2. 0.4
  3. 0.2
  4. 0.5
D
Q.9: Elevation of boiling point can be best studied by?
  1. Beckmann’s method
  2. Landsberger’s method
  3. Gibb’s method
  4. None of the above
B
Q.10: For observing Colligative properties, which of the following conditions should be fulfilled?
  1. The solution should be dilute
  2. Solute should be non-electrolyte
  3. Solute should be non-volatile
  4. All of the above
D
Q.11: When the solvent is containing non-volatile solute particles, then?
  1. Vapor pressure is decreased
  2. Vapor pressure doesn’t change
  3. Vapor pressure is elevated
  4. Volume is decrease
A
Q.12: The freezing point is the temperature of the substance at which its solid and liquid phases have the?
  1. Different vapor pressure
  2. Same volume
  3. Same vapor pressure
  4. Same density
C
Q.12: A solution of glucose is 10%. The volume in which 1g mole of it will be dissolved is?
  1. 1 dm3
  2. 200 dm3
  3. 1.8 dm3
  4. 180 dm3
C
Q.13: Which of the following is not a colligative property?
  1. Density
  2. Elevation of boiling point
  3. Depression in freezing point
  4. Osmotic pressure
A
Q.14: The substances which don’t dissolve in a reasonable amount in a particular solvent are-----.?
  1. Miscible
  2. Well soluble
  3. Sparingly soluble
  4. Insoluble
C
Q.15: Which one of the following solution of glucose in water is more dilute?
  1. 0.1 molar
  2. 0.1 molal
  3. 1% w/w
  4. All have the same concentration
B
Q.15: Which liquid solute is dissolved in the liquid solvent, then the best unit of concentration is?
  1. % w/w
  2. % w/v
  3. % v/v
  4. % v/w
C
Q.16: Which of the following is an example of solid in solid solution?
  1. Dust particles in smoke
  2. Opals
  3. Mercury metal in silver metal
  4. All of the above
B
Q.17: A colligative property is not represented by?
  1. Elevation of boiling point
  2. Osmotic pressure
  3. Freezing point
  4. Relative lowering of vapor pressure
C
Q.18: A solution of KCl in water contains?
  1. Free formula units
  2. Free ions
  3. Free atoms
  4. Free molecules
B
Q.19: For very dilute solution the following expression is used?
  1. Gram per million
  2. Nanogram per million
  3. Microgram per million
  4. Parts per million
D
Q.20: That solution which possesses a maximum concentration of solute at a given temperature is known as?
  1. Unsaturated
  2. Saturated
  3. Supersaturated
  4. Dilute solution
B
Q.21: Which of the following 0.1 m solution will have the lowest freezing point?
  1. K2SO4
  2. NaCl
  3. Glucose
  4. Urea
A
Q.22: Which has the highest freezing point?
  1. 1.0 m NaCl
  2. 1.0 m CaCl2
  3. 1.0 m Urea
  4. 1.0 m KCl
C
Q.23: Which of the following statement is true about ideal solutions?
  1. The change in volume is zero
  2. The change in enthalpy is zero
  3. The vapor pressure change is zero
  4. Both a and b
D
Q.24: The addition of sodium chloride to water, while boiling eggs results to?
  1. Decrease boiling point of water
  2. Increase the boiling point of water
  3. Prevent breaking of eggs
  4. Make egg tasty
B
Q.25: Which pair of the following will not form an ideal solution?
  1. C2H5Br + C2H5I
  2. H2O + C4H9OH
  3. C6H14 + C7H16
  4. CCl4 + SiCl4
B
Q.26: The study of elevation of boiling point is called?
  1. Ebullioscopy
  2. Cryoscopy
  3. Osmometer
  4. None of these
A
Q.27: A solution of glucose is 10% w/v. The volume in which 1g mole of it is dissolved will be?
  1. 1dm3
  2. 200 cm3
  3. 900 cm3
  4. 1.8 dm3
D
Q.28: The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to?
  1. Mole fraction of solvent
  2. Mole fraction of solution
  3. The molar mass of solute
  4. Mole fraction of solute
D

1st Year Physics Chapter Eleven Heat And Thermodynamics MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking first Year Chapter Eleven Physics HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS Chapter Wise MCQs question answers, You are here on right website all of these Multiple Choice Question answers are helpful for learning exams MCQs Questions with solutions. Learn these important Key points for upcoming board exams and tests preparations.

First Year Physics Chapter Eleven MCQs Quiz Test
1st Year Physics Chapter 11 MCQs Quiz Test

On this website you will learn first Year Physics Unit Eleven HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS MCQs with solved Answers. Mostly past papers important MCQs are helpful for getting better marks. You will easily learn this chapter by learning these solved MCQs of Heat and Thermodynamics.

Important Key Points You Will Learn in Chapter Eleven:

  • Kinetic Theory of Gases
  • Internal Energy
  • Work and Heat
  • The first law of Thermodynamics
  • Molar Specific Heats of a Gas
  • Reversible and Irreversible Processes
  • The second law of Thermodynamics
  • Carnot Engine and Carnot’s Theorem
  • Petrol Engine
  • Entropy
Q.1: At absolute temperature, the K.E of the molecules:?
  1. Become minimum
  2. Become maximum
  3. Become zero
  4. None of these
C
Q.2: Temperature is a property, which determines?
  1. How much heat a body  contains
  2. Whether a body will feel hot or cold to touch
  3. In which direction heat will flow between two systems
  4. How much total absolute energy a body has
C
Q.3: We prefer mercury  as a thermometric substance because:?
  1. Over a wide range of temperature, its expansion is uniform
  2. It does not stick to the thermometer glass
  3. Its boiling point is high
  4. All of the above
D
Q.4: The scales of temperature are based on two foxed points, which are?
  1. The temperature of water at 00C and 1000C
  2. The temperature of melting ice and boiling water at atmospheric pressure
  3. The temperature of ice-cold and boiling water
  4. The temperature of frozen and boiling mercury
B
Q.5: What does V represent in the equation PV/2=RT?
  1. The volume of n mole of gas
  2. Mass of 4g of gas
  3. Mass of 2gm of gas
  4. The volume of 2 moles of gas
D
Q.6: In a clinical thermometer, the mercury in the capillary tube does not contract once removed from the patient because------?
  1. Mercury takes a long time to contact
  2. The amount of mercury use is very small
  3. The capillary tube has a small constriction near the bulb
  4. The capillary tube is very narrow
C
Q.7: Normal human body temperature 98.6oF corresponds to:?
  1. 37oC
  2. 42oC
  3. 55oC
  4. 410oC
A
Q.8: The Fahrenheit and centigrade scales agree to:?
  1. -40
  2. 542
  3. 15.5
  4. -273
A
Q.9: The kinetic energy of the molecular motion appears as-------?
  1. P.E
  2. Heat
  3. Temperature
  4. None of these
C
Q.10: Heating of water under atmospheric pressure is an:?
  1. Adiabatic process
  2. Isothermal process
  3. Isochoric process
  4. Isobaric process
D
Q.11: According to pascal’s law, the pressure of a gas in a vessel is?
  1. Different in different directions
  2. Same in all direction
  3. Same only along with opposite directions
  4. Same only along with normal directions
B
Q.12: We can produce heat by?
  1. Frictional process
  2. Chemical processes
  3. Electrical processes
  4. All of the above
D
Q.13: Which one is true for internal energy?
  1. It is the sum of all forms of molecular energies of a system
  2. It is a state function of a system
  3. It is proportional to transitional K.E of the molecules
  4. All are correct
D
Q.14: At what temperature the adiabatic process is equivalent to the isothermal process?
  1. O0 C
  2. Zero Kelvin
  3. Critical temperature
  4. None of these
B
Q.15: Which one is not an example of the adiabatic process?
  1. Rapid escape of air from a burst tyre
  2. The rapid expansion of air
  3. Conversion of water into ice in the refrigerator
  4. Cloud formation in the atmosphere
C
Q.16: The pressure exerted by a column of mercury 76cm high and at 0oc is called-------?
  1. 1 atmosphere
  2. 1 newton per square meter
  3. 1 pascal
  4. Data is insufficient
A
Q.17: Standard condition refers to gas at:?
  1. 76cm,0oc
  2. 760mm,273k
  3. 1 atm,273k
  4. All of the above
D
Q.18: If the volume of gas is held constant and we increase its temperature then?
  1. Its pressure is constant
  2. Its pressure rises
  3. Its pressure falls
  4. All of the above
B
Q.19: If the pressure of a given gas is held constant its density is inversely proportional to its absolute temperature. It is the statement of?
  1. Boyle’s law
  2. Charle’s law
  3. Ideal gas law
  4. Avagadro’s law
B
Q.20: Boyle’s law holds for ideal gases in------?
  1. Isochoric process
  2. Isobaric process
  3. Isothermal process
  4. Adiabatic process
C
Q.21: For a gas obeying Boyle’s law, if the pressure is doubled, the volume becomes:?
  1. Double
  2. One half
  3. Four times
  4. One of the fourth
B
Q.22: During which process the volume of the system remains constant------?
  1. Isothermal
  2. Isobaric
  3. Isochoric
  4. Adiabatic
C
Q.23: Which of the following properties of molecules of a gas is the same for all gases at a particular temperature?
  1. Momentum
  2. Mass
  3. Velocity
  4. Kinetic energy
D
Q.24: In which process entropy remains constant?
  1. Isobaric
  2. Isochoric
  3. Adiabatic
  4. Isothermal
C
Q.25: Which statement of the second law of thermodynamics is based on a heat engine?
  1. Clausius statement
  2. Kelvin statement
  3. Carnot statement
  4. Boyles statement
C
Q.26: Which quantity is not a thermodynamic state function?
  1. Internal energy
  2. Heat energy
  3. Pressure
  4. Volume
B
Q.27: The value of y for diatomic gas is:?
  1. 1.67
  2. 1.4
  3. 1.3
  4. None
B
Q.28: The work done in the isochoric process is-----?
  1. Constant
  2. Variable
  3. Zero
  4. Depends on the situation
C
Q.29: In the successful operation of the heat engine which condition should be met?
  1. Cyclic process
  2. Operated at a certain temperature difference
  3. Both a and b
  4. Not described
C
Q.30: The performance of a refrigerator is described as by-------?
  1. Efficiency
  2. Coefficient of performance
  3. Both a and b
  4. Not described
B

1st Year Physics Chapter Ten Optical Instruments MCQs Quiz Test

 If you are looking first Year Chapter Ten Physics OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS Chapter Wise MCQs question answers, You are here on right website all of these Multiple Choice Question answers are helpful for learning exams MCQs Questions with solutions. Learn these important Key points for upcoming board exams and tests preparations.

1st year Physics Solved Question Answers
First Year Optical Instruments MCQs Quiz Test

On this website you will learn first Year Physics Unit Ten OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS MCQs with solved Answers. Mostly past papers important MCQs are helpful for getting better marks. You will easily learn this chapter by learning these solved MCQs of OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS.

Important Key Points You Will Learn in Chapter Ten:

  • Magnifying power and resolving power of Optical Instruments
  • Simple Microscope
  • Compound Microscope
  • Astronomical Telescope
  • Spectrometer
  • Speed of light
  • Fibre Optics / its principle/ its types
  • Signal Transmission and conversion of sound
  • Losses of power

Q.1: Large astronomical telescopes are of which type?
  1. Refraction
  2. Reflection
  3. Diffraction
  4. Dispersing
B
Q.2: A point where the incident parallel rays of light converge or appear to diverge after passing through a lens is called?
  1. Center of curvature
  2. Focus
  3. Optical center
  4. Aperture
B
Q.3: Who invented photophone?
  1. Graham Bell
  2. Galileo
  3. Torricelli
  4. Maxwell
A
Q.4: In going from a denser to rare medium a ray of light is?
  1. Undaviated
  2. Bent away from the normal
  3. Bent towards the normal
  4. Polarized
B
Q.5: Typical fibre optic communication system uses the light of which wavelength?
  1. 1.3μm
  2. 1.3nm
  3. 13μm
  4. 13nm
A
Q.6: The diamond shines due to:?
  1. Interference
  2. Diffraction
  3. Scattering
  4. Total internal reflection
D
Q.7: If a lens is covered with wax then?
  1. Intensity becomes double
  2. The image will not formed
  3. Intensity will remain the same
  4. Intensity will become half
D
Q.8: The minimum distance between an object and its real image in a convex lens is:?
  1. 2 f
  2. 2.5 f
  3. 3 f
  4. 4 f
D
Q.9: If an object is placed away from ‘2f’ of a converging lens, then the image will be?
  1. Real and erect
  2. Virtual and erect
  3. Real and inverted
  4. Virtual
C
Q.10: If the length of the telescope is 96cm the focal lengths of its lenses is:?
  1. 100cm, -4cm
  2. -80cm, -6cm
  3. 90cm, -6cm
  4. 90cm, 6cm
C
Q.11: The magnifying power of a simple microscope:?
  1. Increase with increase in focal length
  2. Increase with decrease in focal length
  3. No effect with decrease or increase with the focal length
  4. List distance of distinct vision
B
Q.12: Image of an object 5 mm high is only 1 cm high. Magnification produced by a lens is:?
  1. 0.5
  2. 0.2
  3. 1
  4. 2
D
Q.13: The speed of light in the medium of the refractive index of 1.5 is?
  1. 2×108ms-1
  2. 3×108ms-1
  3. 0.5×108mms-1
  4. 1.5×108ms-1
A
Q.14: Least distance of distinct vision of normal and healthy people:?
  1. Increases with increase in age
  2. Decreases with increase in age
  3. Neither increases nor decreases
  4. Becomes infinite after 60 years
A
Q.15: In a convex lens of large aperture fails to converge the light rays incident on it to a single point, it is said to suffer from?
  1. Chromatic aberration
  2. Spherical aberration
  3. Both spherical and chromatic
  4. Distortion
B
Q.16: Two convex lenses of equal focal length ‘f’ are placed in contact, the resultant focal length of the combination is:?
  1. Zero
  2. f
  3. 2 f
  4. f/2
D
Q.17: A convex length of focal length ‘f1’ and concave lens of focal length ‘f2’ are placed in contact. The focal length of the combination is:?
  1.  f2 + f1
  2. f2 – f1
  3. f1f2  / f2 + f1
  4. -f1f2 / f1 – f2
D
Q.18: Final image produced by a compound microscope with respect to the object is?
  1. Real and inverted
  2. Real and erect
  3. Virtual and erect
  4. Virtual and inverted
D
Q.19: For normal adjustment, length of astronomical telescope is:?
  1. fo + fe
  2. fo – fe
  3. fo / fe
  4. fe / fo
A
Q.20: A surfboard moves at an aped of 5ms-1on the crests of the wave. The distance between wave crests is 10m. What is the frequency of the wave motion?
  1. 2 Hz
  2. 5 Hz
  3. 10 Hz
  4. 0.5 Hz
D
Q.21: Dispersion effect may produce an error in light signals. This type of error is minimum in:?
  1. Single-mode step-index fiber
  2. Multimode step-index fiber
  3. Multimode graded-index fiber
  4. Monomode step-index fiber
C
Q.22: Light signals pass through multimode graded-index fiber due to?
  1. Continuous refraction
  2. Total internal reflection
  3. Both continuous refraction and total internal reflection
  4. Diffraction
C
Q.23: Which one type of fibre is more suitable for transmission of signals in which white light is used?
  1. Mono mode step-index fibre
  2. Multimode step-index fibre
  3. Multi-mode graded-index fibre
  4. Single-mode step-index fibre
C
Q.24: Critical angle is that incident angle in denser medium for which angle of refraction is?
  1. 0°
  2. 45°
  3. 90°
  4. 180°
C
Q.25: There is a noticeable boundary between core and cladding for?
  1. Multimode step-index fibre
  2. Multi-mode graded-index fibre
  3. Single-mode step-index fibre
  4. All types of fibre
B
Q.26: The electrical signals change into light signals for transmission through optical fibre. A light pulse represents?
  1. Zero (0)
  2. One (1)
  3. Both zero (0) and one (1)
  4. Either zero (0) or one (1)
B
Q.27: A lens, which is thicker at the center and thinner at the edges, is called?
  1. Concave lens
  2. Convex lens
  3. Plano-convex lens
  4. Plano concave lens
B
Q.28: A spectrometer is used to find?
  1. Wavelength flight
  2. Refractive index of the prism
  3. The wavelength of different colors
  4. All of the above
D
Q.29: If a convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is cut into two identical halves along the lens diameter, the focal length of each half is?
  1. f
  2. f/2
  3. 2f
  4. 3f/2
C
Q.30: A convex and concave lens of focal length ‘f’ are in contact. The focal length of the combination will be?
  1. Zero
  2. f/2
  3. 2f
  4. Infinite
D
Q.31: If the red light is replaced by blue light illuminating the object in a microscope the resolving power of the microscope?
  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. Remain the same
  4. Become half
A
Q.32: In optic fiber transmission system ---------- are used to regenerate the dim light signal?
  1. Diodes
  2. Repeaters
  3. Laser
  4. Transformer
B
Q.33: Magnification of the astronomical telescope is?
  1. fo + fe
  2. fo / fe
  3. fe / fo
  4. (1 + fo/fe) L/fo
B
Q.34: The equation αmin = 1.22 λ/D was devised by?
  1. Newton
  2. Einstein
  3. Raleigh
  4. Planks
C
Q.35: The central image in a compound microscope is:?
  1. Virtual, erect, and magnified
  2. Real, inverted, and smaller than object
  3. Virtual, erected and magnified
  4. Erect, virtual and smaller than final image
D
Q.36: Michelson calculated the speed of light using the instrument?
  1. Spectrometer
  2. Galvanometer
  3. Interferometer
  4. None of these
C
Q.37: Michelson devised the formula to calculate speed of light?
  1. c = 4fd
  2. c = 8fd
  3. c = 16fd
  4. c = 5/2 fd
C
Q.38: The function of collimator in spectrometer is?
  1. To produce parallel beam of light
  2. To filter the light rays
  3. To make them mutually perpendicular
  4. No function
A
Q.39: In optic fibre transmission, the repeaters are separated through a distance of --------- km in newer system?
  1. 300km
  2. 200km
  3. 100km
  4. 20km
C
Q.40: Which color has the maximum angle of deviation in prism?
  1. Red
  2. Blue
  3. Orange
  4. Green
B

1st Year Physics Chapter Nine Physical Optics MCQs Quiz Test

 If you are looking first Year Chapter Nine Physics PHYSICAL OPTICS Chapter Wise MCQs question answers, You are here on right website all of these Multiple Choice Question answers are helpful for learning exams MCQs Questions with solutions. Learn these important Key points for upcoming board exams and tests preparations.

1st Year Physics Chapter Nine MCQs
1st Year Physics MCQs Chapter Nine Physical Optics MCQs

On this website you will learn first Year Physics Unit Nine PHYSICAL OPTICS MCQs with solved Answers. Mostly past papers important MCQs are helpful for getting better marks. You will easily learn this chapter by learning these solved MCQs of PHYSICAL OPTICS.

Important Key Points You Will Learn in Chapter Nine:

  • Waterfronts
  • Huygens Principle
  • Interference of Light Waves
  • Young’s Double Slit Experiment
  • Interference in Thin Film
  • Newton’s Rings
  • Michelson Interferometer
  • Diffraction of light
  • Diffraction Grating
  • Diffraction of X-rays by Crystals
  • Polarization

Q.1: Optically active crystals rotate the?
  1. Vibrating plane
  2. Polarization plane
  3. Diffraction plane
  4. Interference plane
B
Q.2: Which is not an optically active substance?
  1. Sugar
  2. Tartaric acid
  3. Water
  4. Sodium chlorate
C
Q.3: In double slit experiment, we observe?
  1. Interference fringes only
  2. Diffraction fringes only
  3. Both interference and diffraction fringes
  4. Polarized fringes
C
Q.4: When light incident normally on thin film, the path difference depends upon?
  1. Thickness of the film only
  2. Nature of the film only
  3. The angle of incidence only
  4. All thickness, nature, and angle of incidence
D
Q.5: Which one of the following properties of light does not change with the nature of the medium?
  1. Velocity
  2. Wavelength
  3. Amplitude
  4. Frequency
D
Q.6: Huygen wave theory explain?
  1. Diffraction
  2. Interference
  3. Polarization
  4. Photoelectric effect
D
Q.7: The photoelectric effect was explained by?
  1. Hertz
  2. Fresnel
  3. Einstein
  4. Plank
C
Q.8: According to Einstein, light travels from one place to another in the form of?
  1. Waves
  2. Particles
  3. Photons
  4. It was not his discovery
C
Q.9: Longitudinal waves do not exhibit?
  1. Reflection
  2. Refraction
  3. Diffraction
  4. Polarization
D
Q.10: Signal from the T.V remote control travels:?
  1. With speed of sound
  2. With the speed of light
  3. With the speed of ultrasonic
  4. With the speed of supersonic
B
Q.11: A point source of light placed in a homogenous medium gives rise to?
  1. A cylindrical wavefront
  2. An elliptical wavefront
  3. Spherical wavefront
  4. A plane wavefront
C
Q.12: The locus of all points in a medium having the same phase of vibration is called?
  1. Crest
  2. Trough
  3. Wavelength
  4. Wavefront
D
Q.13: Which one of the following is nearly monochromatic light?
  1. Light from a fluorescent tube
  2. Light from a mercury lamp
  3. Light from a sodium lamp
  4. Light from a simple lamp
C
Q.14: Two sources of light are coherent if they emit rays of?
  1. Same wavelength
  2. The same amplitude of vibration
  3. Same wavelength with a constant phase difference
  4. Same amplitude and wavelength
C
Q.15: When the crest of one wave falls over the trough of the other wave, this phenomenon is known as?
  1. Polarization
  2. Constructive interference
  3. Destructive interference
  4. Diffraction
C
Q.16: In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe spacing is equal to (d=slit separation and D = distance of the screen from slits):?
  1. dλD
  2. 2λd/D
  3. λD/d
  4. λd/D
C
Q.17: In the Young double-slit experiment, if white light is used?
  1. Alternate dark and bright fringes will be seen
  2. Coloured fringes will be seen
  3. No interference fringes will be seen
  4. Impossible to predict
B
Q.18: The velocity of light was determined accurately by?
  1. Newton
  2. Michelson
  3. Huygen
  4. Young
B
Q.19: The condition of constructive interference of two coherent beams is that the path difference should be?
  1. Integral multiple of λ/2
  2. Integral multiple of λ
  3. Odd integral multiple of λ/2
  4. Even integral multiple of λ
D
Q.20: In an interference pattern:?
  1. Bright fringes are wider than dark fringes
  2. Dark fringes are wider than bright fringe
  3. Both dark and bright fringes are equal width
  4. Central fringes are dimmer than the outer fringes
C
Q.21: In Young’s double-slit experiment, the separation between the slit is halved and the distance between the slit and screen is doubled. The fringe width is:?
  1. Remain the same
  2. Double
  3. Half
  4. Quadrupled
D
Q.22: The blue color of the sky is due to?
  1. Diffraction
  2. Reflection
  3. Polarization
  4. Scattering
D
Q.23: A light ray traveling from denser to rarer medium suffers a phase change of?
  1. 0°
  2. 90°
  3. 180°
  4. 45°
A
Q.24: When one mirror of a Michelson Interferometer is moved a distance of 0.5 mm, we observe 2000 fringes. What will be a wavelength of light used?
  1. 5000nm
  2. 5000A°
  3. 500m
  4. 2000μm
B
Q.25: Diffraction effect is:?
  1. More for round edge
  2. Less for round edge
  3. More for a sharp edge
  4. Less for a sharp edge
C
Q.26: The wavelength of X – rays is of the order of?
  1. 10A°
  2. 1000A°
  3. 1A°
  4. 100A°
C
Q.27: The wavelength of X-rays falling at a glancing angle of 30° on a crystal with atomic spacing 2 x 10-10m for the first-order diffraction is?
  1. 4×10-10m
  2. 2×10-10m
  3. 0.02×10-10m
  4. 20×10-10m
B
Q.28: A diffraction grating has 500 lines per mm. Its slit spacing or grating element will be equal to?
  1. 500mm
  2. 5×10-3mm
  3. 2×10-5mm
  4. 2×10-3mm
D
Q.29: In a plane-polarized light electric vibration are:?
  1. In all direction
  2. In two mutually perpendicular directions
  3. Taking place perpendicular to the direction of propagation of light
  4. No vibration at all
C
Q.30: Light on passing through a Polaroid is?
  1. Plane polarized
  2. Un-polarized
  3. Circularly polarized
  4. Elliptically polarized
A
Q.31: Which one of the following cannot be polarized?
  1. Radio waves
  2. Ultraviolet rays
  3. X-rays
  4. Ultrasonic waves
D
Q.32: A compact disc having rulings of 0.5 μm each wide shows colors under white light due to?
  1. Equally spaced
  2. Distance between them increases
  3. Distance between them does not remain constant
  4. They are adjacent with no space in between
C
Q.33: In monochromatic red light, a blue book will probably appear to be?
  1. Black
  2. Purple
  3. Green
  4. No scientific reasoning available
A
Q.34: A polarizer is used to?
  1. Reduce the intensity of light
  2. Produce polarized light
  3. Increase intensity of light
  4. Both a and b
D
Q.35: In a double-slit experiment, if one of the two-slit is covered then?
  1. No interference fringes are observed
  2. No diffraction fringes are observed
  3. No fringes observed
  4. Interference pattern not disturbed
A
Q.36: ________ gives the definition of a metre in terms of the wavelength of red cadmium light?
  1. Newton
  2. Einstein
  3. Michelson
  4. Galileo
C
Q.37: In Michelson interferometer to switch the fringe from bright to dark the mirror should be displaced through?
  1. λ/(b)
  2. λ/3
  3. λ/6
  4. λ/4
D
Q.38: In the shadow of a ball the central portion appears bright that happens due to?
  1. Interference
  2. Diffraction
  3. Polarization
  4. Refraction
B
Q.39: Which experiment shows that wavelength of light is smaller than that of sound?
  1. Diffraction
  2. Polarization
  3. Interference
  4. Reflection
A
Q.40: Crystals of material can behave as?
  1. Convex lens
  2. Interferometer
  3. Diffraction grating
  4. Concave
C

1st Year Physics Chapter Eight Waves MCQs Quiz Test

 If you are looking first Year Chapter Eight Physics WAVES Chapter Wise MCQs question answers, You are here on right website all of these Multiple Choice Question answers are helpful for learning exams MCQs Questions with solutions. Learn these important Key points for upcoming board exams and tests preparations.

1st Year Physics MCQs Chapter Eight
1st Year Physics Chapter Eight Waves MCQs

On this website you will learn first Year Physics Unit Eight WAVES MCQs with solved Answers. Mostly past papers important MCQs are helpful for getting better marks. You will easily learn this chapter by learning these solved MCQs of WAVES.

Important Key Points You Will Learn in Chapter Eight:

  • Progressive Waves
  • Periodic Waves
  • Speed of sound in air
  • Effect of Pressure, Density, and Temperature on the speed of sound in air
  • Principle of Superposition
  • Interference
  • Beats
  • Reflection of Waves
  • Stationary Waves
  • Stationary waves in a Stretched String
  • Stationary waves in air columns
  • Doppler Effect
  • Applications of Doppler Effect

Q.1: Which of the following is not the property of sound?
  1. It can travel in a vacuum
  2. It is reflected
  3. It shows phenomenon interference
  4. It is propagated as longitudinal wave
A
Q.2: The wave that requires a material medium for their propagation are called?
  1. Matter waves
  2. Electromagnetic waves
  3. Carrier waves
  4. Mechanical waves
D
Q.3: Which organ produces a better quality of sound?
  1. Closed organ pipe
  2. Open organ pipe
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of these
B
Q.4: When two identical traveling waves are superimposed, the velocity of the resultant wave:?
  1. Decreases
  2. Increases
  3. Remains unchanged
  4. Becomes zero
C
Q.5: In vibrating cord, the points where the amplitude is maximum, are called?
  1. Antinodes
  2. Nodes
  3. Troughs
  4. Crests
C
Q.6: Echo is the phenomenon of?
  1. Interference of sound
  2. Reflection of sound
  3. Refraction of sound
  4. None of these
D
Q.7: The phase difference between particles being on either side of a node?
  1. π
  2. π/2
  3. 2π
  4. π/4
C
Q.8: If the stretching force T of wire increases, then its frequency?
  1. Decreases
  2. Increases
  3. Remains the same
  4. All of the above
C
Q.9: A stationary wave is set up in the air column of a closed pipe. At the closed end of the pipe?
  1. Always a node is formed
  2. Always an antinode is formed
  3. Neither nod nor antinode is formed
  4. Sometimes a node and sometimes an antinode is formed
D
Q.10: It is possible to distinguish between transverse and longitudinal waves form the property of?
  1. Refraction
  2. Polarization
  3. Interference
  4. Diffraction
A
Q.11: According to Newton sound travel in the air under the conditions of which type of process?
  1. Adiabatic
  2. Isothermal
  3. Isobaric
  4. Isochoric
C
Q.12: Beats are result of?
  1. Diffraction
  2. Constructive interference
  3. Destructive interference
  4. Alternate constructive and destructive interference
C
Q.13: The velocity of sound in a vacuum is?
  1. 332ms-1
  2. 320ms-1
  3. Zero
  4. 224ms-1
C
Q.14: Increase in the velocity of sound in the air of 1°C rise in temperature is?
  1. 1.61ms-1
  2. 61.0ms-1
  3. 0.61ms-1
  4. 2.00ms-1
B
Q.15: Energy is not transferred by?
  1. Longitudinal waves
  2. Transverse waves
  3. Stationary waves
  4. Electromagnetic waves
B
Q.16: On loading the pong of a tuning fork with wax, its frequency?
  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. Remains unchanged
  4. May increase or decrease
D
Q.17: The velocity of sound in the air would become double then its velocity at 0°C at temperature?
  1. 313°C
  2. 586°C
  3. 819°C
  4. 1172°C
D
Q.18: At antinodes produced in sound waves:?
  1. The pressure is minimum and velocity is maximum
  2. The pressure is maximum and velocity is minimum
  3. Pressure is maximum
  4. None of these
B
Q.19: For ultrasonic waves:?
  1. Frequency is in the audible range
  2. Frequency is greater than 20 kHz
  3. Frequency lower than 20 Hz
  4. All of the above
C
Q.20: The periodic alternation of sound between the maximum and minimum loudness is called?
  1. Silence zone
  2. Interference
  3. Beats
  4. Resonance
B
Q.21: The number of beats produced per second is equal to?
  1. The sum of frequencies of two tuning forks
  2. The difference of frequencies of two tuning forks
  3. The ratio of the frequencies of two tuning forks
  4. The frequency of either of two tuning forks
B
Q.22: A wave in soft string reflects from a hard steel rod. Its phase difference relative in the incident wave will be?
  1. 0°
  2. 90°
  3. 180°
  4. 76°
D
Q.23: Silence zone takes place due to:?
  1. Constructive interference
  2. Destructive interference
  3. Beats
  4. Resonance
D
Q.24: Doppler effect applies to:?
  1. Sound wave only
  2. Lightwave only
  3. Both sound and light waves
  4. Neither sound nor lightwave
C
Q.25: Do dolphins navigate by using?
  1. Echolocation
  2. Doppler effect
  3. Reflection of waves
  4. All of these
D
Q.26: To monitor blood flow through major arteries, ultrasonic waves of which frequencies are employed?
  1. 5 to 10 Hz
  2. 5 to 10 MHz
  3. 15 – to 100 MHz
  4. None of these
A
Q.27: Which one is the correct relation for fundamental frequency of open and closed pipe?
  1. fopen = 2 fclosed
  2. fclosed = 2fopen
  3. fopen = fclosed
  4. fopen = 1/fclosed
D
Q.28: In open organ pipe:?
  1. Only even harmonics are present
  2. Only odd harmonics are present
  3. Both even and odd harmonics are present
  4. Selected harmonics are present
D
Q.29: Which one is the correct relation for speed of sound?
  1. VNewton = VLaplace
  2. VNewton = γVLaplace
  3. VNewton = √VLaplace
  4. VLaplace = √VNewton
C
Q.30: If the temperature increases the frequency of tuning fork?
  1. Increases
  2. Decreases
  3. No change
  4. None of these
C
Q.31: The particles in the wave separated through ------------ multiple of λare out of phase to each other?
  1. (n)
  2. (n+1)
  3. (n+1/2)
  4. Both a and c
B
Q.32: Waves are produced at the surface of the water by a pencil executing periodic motion if held vertically at a frequency of 50Hz are?
  1. Longitudinal
  2. Transverse
  3. Periodic
  4. Both b and c
A
Q.33: Newton formula estimated the speed of sound?
  1. 281ms-1
  2. 333ms-1
  3. 340ms-1
  4. All of these
B
Q.34: Laplace found that the alternate compression and refractions produced in sound waves follow?
  1. Isothermal law
  2. Adiabatic law
  3. Isochoric law
  4. All of the above
D
Q.35: For destructive interference of sound waves, the path difference between two interfering sounds should be?
  1. nλ
  2. (n+1/2) λ
  3. Sometimes nλ and sometimes (n+1/2) λ
  4. None of these
C
Q.36: The speed of sound in hydrogen is _________ time than that in oxygen?
  1. Two times
  2. Three times
  3. Four times
  4. Six times
A
Q.37: The beats frequency (sensible) for a human car is?
  1. 24Hz
  2. 10Hz
  3. 12Hz
  4. 16Hz
B
Q.38: The speed of stationary waves in a stretched string is independent of?
  1. Number of loops
  2. Tension in the string
  3. Point where a string is plucked
  4. Both a and c
C
Q.39: If two waves of the amplitude of ‘x’ produce a resultant wave of amplitude ‘x’ then the phase difference between them will be?
  1. 60°
  2. 120°
  3. 180°
  4. 0°
A
Q.40: Which phenomenon can be applied to estimate the velocity of the star with respect to Earth?
  1. Doppler’s effect
  2. Interference of waves
  3. Beats phenomenon
  4. All of these
C

1st Year Physics Chapter Seven Oscillations MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking first Year Chapter Seven Physics OSCILLATIONS Chapter Wise MCQs question answers, You are here on right website all of these Multiple Choice Question answers are helpful for learning exams MCQs Questions with solutions. Learn these important Key points for upcoming board exams and tests preparations.

11th Oscillations MCQs Quiz Test
1st Year Physics Chapter Seven Oscillations MCQs

On this website you will learn first Year Physics Unit Seven OSCILLATIONS MCQs with solved Answers. Mostly past papers important MCQs are helpful for getting better marks. You will easily learn this chapter by learning these solved MCQs of OSCILLATIONS.

Important Key Points You Will Learn in Chapter Seven:

  • Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM)
  • SHM and Uniform Circular Motion
  • Phase
  • Horizontal Mass Spring System
  • Simple Pendulum
  • Energy Conservation in SHM
  • Free and Forced Oscillations
  • Resonance
  • Damped Oscillations
  • Sharpness of Resonance

Q.1: In vibratory motion?
  1. P.E remains constant
  2. K.E remains constant
  3. Total energy remains constant
  4. Total momentum remains constant
C
Q.2: The waveform of S.H.M. is?
  1. Standing wave
  2. Sine wave
  3. Square wave
  4. Rectangular waves
B
Q.3: If the spring constant is halved then the new constant will be?
  1. 3k
  2. 2k
  3. 4k
  4. k/2
C
Q.4: In S.H.M. the velocity of a particle is maximum at?
  1. Mean position
  2. Extreme position
  3. The middle between mean and extreme position on the right side
  4. The middle between mean and extreme position on the left side
A
Q.5: The acceleration of a projection on the diameter of a particle moving along a circle is?
  1. ω2x
  2. ωx2
  3. – ω2x
  4. – ωx2
C
Q.6: The total energy of a body executing S.H.M. is directly proportional to?
  1. The square root of amplitude
  2. The amplitude
  3. Reciprocal of amplitude
  4. Square of amplitude
D
Q.7: The time period of a second’s pendulum is?
  1. 4 seconds
  2. 3 seconds
  3. 2 seconds
  4. 6 seconds
C
Q.8: The length of a simple pendulum on the surface of Earth is 1m, its length on the surface of the moon, where g is 1/6th value of g on the earth is?
  1. Remain the same
  2. 6m
  3. 1/6m
  4. 1/36m
C
Q.9: If the length of a pendulum becomes four times, then its time period will become?
  1. Four times
  2. Six times
  3. Eight times
  4. Two times
D
Q.10: Is the force responsible for the vibratory motion of the simple pendulum is?
  1. mg cos θ
  2. mg sin θ
  3. mg tan θ
  4. mg
A
Q.11: The tension in the string of simple pendulum is?
  1. Constant
  2. Maximum at the extreme position
  3. Maximum at the mean position
  4. Zero at the mean position
C
Q.12: The wave produced in the microwave oven has a wavelength of?
  1. 12 m
  2. 1.2 cm
  3. 12cm
  4. 12 μm
C
Q.13: The SI unit of force constant is identical to that of?
  1. Force
  2. Pressure
  3. Surface tension
  4. Loudness
C
Q.14: When the amplitude of an SHM becomes double, its energy becomes?
  1. Double
  2. Four times
  3. One half
  4. None time
B
Q.15: A simple pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a lift has a time period T when the lift is at rest. When the lift falls freely than its:?
  1. Time period becomes zero
  2. Acceleration becomes zero
  3. Vibration is stopped
  4. Frequency becomes infinity
C
Q.16: The energy of SMH is maximum at?
  1. Mean position
  2. Extreme position
  3. In between mean and extreme
  4. All position during SHM
D
Q.17: If a hollow bob of a simple pendulum be filled with mercury that drains out slowly, its time period?
  1. Increase continuously
  2. Decreases continuously
  3. Remain the same
  4. First increases then decrease
D
Q.18: The displacement of SHM is written as x = x0 sinωt. If displacement is written by x = x0 cos ωt then phase constant will be equal to?
  1. 0°
  2. 45°
  3. 90°
  4. 180°
C
Q.19: For what displacement the P.E of SHM becomes ¼ of its maximum value?
  1. x = x0
  2. x = x0/2
  3. x = x0/4
  4. x = x02/2
B
Q.20: K.E and P.E of a spring-mass system executing SHM become equal at with displacement? (A being the amplitude)?
  1. ± √2A
  2. ±1/ √2 A
  3. ± 1/2A
  4. 1/ √2 A
B
Q.21: Which one does not work according to resonance?
  1. T.V
  2. Radio
  3. Microwave oven
  4. Bulb
D
Q.22: Which of the given equation is correct in SHM?
  1. T.E = ½ kx02
  2. T.E  = K.Emax
  3. T.E = P.Emax
  4. All are correct
D
Q.23: The phase of SHM describes?
  1. Displacement only
  2. The direction of motion only
  3. Both displacement and direction of motion
  4. Neither displacement nor direction of motion
C
Q.24: The natural frequency of a simple pendulum depends upon?
  1. It’s mass
  2. It’s length
  3. Square of its length
  4. The square root of its length
D
Q.25: Electrical resonance is observed in?
  1. Radio
  2. Microwave oven
  3. Both in radio and microwave oven
  4. Neither in radio nor in a microwave oven
A
Q.26: Total distance traveled by a bob of a simple pendulum in one vibration is equal to?
  1. Amplitude
  2. Square of amplitude
  3. Twice of amplitude
  4. Four times of amplitude
Four times of amplitude
Q.27: When K.E energy of SHM is maximum, its?
  1. P.E is zero
  2. Acceleration is zero
  3. Restoring force is zero
  4. All P.E acceleration restoring force are zero
D
Q.28: In damped harmonic oscillation, which one decreases?
  1. Amplitude of vibration
  2. Energy of vibration
  3. Both amplitude and energy
  4. Neither amplitude nor energy
C
Q.29: Forced vibrations are known as?
  1. Simple harmonic vibration
  2. Natural vibration
  3. Driven harmonic vibration
  4. Free vibration
Driven harmonic vibration
Q.30: Do mechanical springs behave like?
  1. Resistances
  2. RC – series circuit
  3. Capacitances
  4. None of these
B
Q.31: At Murree Hills (Assume the value of g changes). If we use a simple pendulum as a time standard then the one-second duration will?
  1. Increase
  2. Decrease
  3. Remain the same
  4. Is zero
A
Q.32: SMH described by x = cos(t), has frequency of?
  1. 2πHz
  2. 1/2π Hz
  3. πHz
  4. Cannot be predicted
B
Q.33: The projection of the particle moving in a circle with non-uniform angular speed executes?
  1. S.H.M.
  2. Vibratory motion
  3. Both b and d
  4. None S.H.M.
D
Q.34: If an oscillator starts vibrating from negative extreme, its phase constant will be?
  1. π/2rad
  2. πrad
  3. 3π/2 rad
  4. 0°
C
Q.35: For a simple pendulum, the restoring force is caused by?
  1. Gravity
  2. Spring
  3. Hand
  4. All of these
A
Q.36: The distance covered by a body in one complete vibration is 20cm. What is the amplitude of the body?
  1. 10cm
  2. 5cm
  3. 15cm
  4. 7.5cm
B
Q.37: If the mass of the spring-mass oscillator becomes half the squared frequency will be?
  1. Quadruple
  2. Half
  3. Double
  4. Remain the same
C
Q.38: In the case of a simple pendulum, the cause of damping is?
  1. Drag force of air
  2. Gravity
  3. Tension in string
  4. None of these
A
Q.39: The energy absorbed by a body is _________ at resonance?
  1. Maximum as well minimum
  2. Minimum only
  3. Maximum only
  4. Zero
C

1st Year Physics Chapter Six Fluid Dynamics MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking first Year Chapter Six Physics FLUID DYNAMICS Chapter Wise MCQs question answers, You are here on right website all of these Multiple Choice Question answers are helpful for learning exams MCQs Questions with solutions. Learn these important Key points for upcoming board exams and tests preparations.

MCQs Quiz Test Physics Chapter Six
1st Year Chapter Six Physics MCQs

On this website you will learn first Year Physics Unit Six FLUID DYNAMICS MCQs with solved Answers. Mostly past papers important MCQs are helpful for getting better marks. You will easily learn this chapter by learning these solved MCQs of FLUID DYNAMICS.

Important Key Points You Will Learn in Chapter Six:

  • Viscous drag and Stokes’ Law
  • Terminal Velocity
  • Fluid Flow
  • Equation of Continuity
  • Bernoulli’s Equation
  • Applications of Bernoulli’s Equation

Q.1: Which of the given has the least coefficient of viscosity?
  1. Milk
  2. Water
  3. tarcoal
  4. Engine coal
B
Q.2: The raindrop falling from the sky reaches the ground with?
  1. Constant acceleration
  2. Terminal velocity
  3. Constant pressure
  4. Variable acceleration
B
Q.3: Terminal velocity is:?
  1. Uniform
  2. Maximum
  3. Uniform and maximum
  4. Neither uniform nor maximum
C
Q.4: When the body moves with terminal velocity the acceleration in the body become?
  1. Zero
  2. Maximum
  3. Variable
  4. Infinite
A
Q.5: Terminal velocity is given by equation?
  1. Vt  = gr2p/n
  2. Vt  = 2gr2p/9n
  3. Vt  = gr2p/9n
  4. Vt  = 9gr2p/2n
B
Q.6: A flowing liquid possess?
  1. Pressure
  2. K.E
  3. P.E
  4. All of these
D
Q.7: The flow of an ideal fluid is?
  1. Turbulent
  2. Streamline
  3. Along straight path
  4. All of these
D
Q.8: Which would be the truck least likely to sink into a soft ground?
  1. Truck loaded with four wheels
  2. Truck loaded with six wheels
  3. Empty truck with four wheels
  4. Empty truck with six wheels
D
Q.9: When fluid is incompressible then?
  1. The velocity of the fluid is constant
  2. The flow of the fluid is along the straight line
  3. The density of the fluid is constant
  4. The volume of the fluid is constant
The density of the fluid is constant
Q.10: An ideal fluid flows through a horizontal tube of variable diameter. The pressure is lowest where the?
  1. Velocity is the highest
  2. Diameter is the smallest
  3. Diameter is the largest
  4. Both a and b
D
Q.11: According to the equation of continuity, A1V1 = A2V2 = constant, the constant is equal to?
  1. Flow rate
  2. Volume of fluid
  3. Mass of fluid
  4. density of fluid
A
Q.12: Equation of continuity is obtained by applying the law of conversation of?
  1. Mass
  2. Energy
  3. Momentum
  4. All
A
Q.13: Bernoulli’s equation is applicable to?
  1. Flow of liquids
  2. Viscosity
  3. Surface tension
  4. All of these
A
Q.14: Speed of efflux can be determined by applying?
  1. Bernoulli’s theorem
  2. Toricelli’s theorem
  3. Venture relation
  4. Stoke’s law
B
Q.15: Blood vessels are?
  1. Rigid
  2. Inflatable
  3. of Glass
  4. Both a and b
D
Q.16: If a stream of air is blown under one of the pans of a physical balance in equilibrium, then pan may?
  1. Go up
  2. Not effected
  3. Go down
  4. None of these
C
Q.17: A man standing near a fast-moving train may fall?
  1. Over the train
  2. Away from the train
  3. Towards the train
  4. On himself
C
Q.18: For which position, maximum blood pressure in the body has the smallest value?
  1. Standing straight
  2. Sitting on chair
  3. Sitting on ground
  4. Lying horizontally
D
Q.19: Two fog droplets have radii 2:3, their terminal velocities are
  1. 4:6
  2. 4:9
  3. 2:9
  4. 4:3
B
Q.20: Bernoulli’s equation is obtained by applying law of conservation of?
  1. Mass
  2. Energy
  3. Momentum
  4. Fluid
B
Q.21: Venturi meter is used to measure?
  1. Fluid pressure
  2. Fluid density
  3. Fluid speed
  4. Fluid energy
C
Q.22: In cricket when a bowler produces swing, the wall will curve towards?
  1. Shinning side of the ball
  2. Rough side
  3. Seam of the ball
  4. Goes straight
A
Q.23: Stoke’s law is applicable if the body has ______ shape?
  1. Rough
  2. Square
  3. Spherical
  4. All of these
C
Q.24: The velocity of the flow of liquid through an orifice at the bottom of a tank depends upon?
  1. Density of liquid
  2. Height of liquid above the orifice
  3. Gravity
  4. Both b and c
D
Q.25: Systolic pressure is called?
  1. Lower blood pressure
  2. Higher blood pressure
  3. Normal blood pressure
  4. Abnormal blood pressure
B
Q.26: An instrument used to measure blood pressure is called?
  1. Venturimeter
  2. Blood pressure
  3. Sphygmomanometer
  4. Sonometer
C
Q.27: A chimney works best if air exposed to the chimney is?
  1. Stationary
  2. Moving
  3. Moving slowly
  4. Moving fast
D
Q.28: Which one is venturi relation?
  1. P1 – P2 = ½ PV22
  2. P1 – P2 = ½ Pv21
  3. P + 1/2Pv2 = constant
  4. Both a and b
A
Q.29: The effect of the decrease in pressure with the increase of the speed of the fluid in a horizontal pipe is known as?
  1. Bernoulli’s effect
  2. Torricelli’s effect
  3. Venturi effect
  4. Stoke’s effect
A
Q.30: Ideal fluid is?
  1. Non-viscous
  2. Incompressible
  3. Steady flow
  4. Possess all properties
D
Q.31: Laminar flow usually occurs at speeds which are:?
  1. Low
  2. High
  3. Very high
  4. Sometimes high and time low
A
Q.32: For _________ flow the path of the fluid particles cannot be tracked?
  1. Laminar
  2. Streamline
  3. Turbulent
  4. Both a and b
C
Q.33: Sphygmomanometers measures blood pressure?
  1. Statically
  2. Dynamically
  3. Some time static and sometimes dynamic
  4. None of these
B
Q.34: Carburetor of a car is an application of?
  1. Venturi meter
  2. Bernoulli’s equation
  3. Equation of continuity
  4. Torricelli’s theorem
B
Q.35: The blood flow is __________ flow at systolic pressure?
  1. Laminar
  2. Turbulent
  3. Mixed
  4. None
B
Q.36: The profile of Aeroplane wing which lifts it up is called as?
  1. Wing shape
  2. Aerofoil profile
  3. Curved profile
  4. None of these
B
Q.37: Bernoulli’s equation is applicable for?
  1. Laminar flow
  2. Turbulent flow
  3. Static fluids
  4. All kinds of flow
A
Q.38: The density of human blood is nearly equal to?
  1. Water
  2. Honey
  3. Mercury
  4. Oil (Kerosene)
A
Q.39: The speed of the fluid is maximum in the venturi meter at?
  1. Convergent duct
  2. Divergent duct
  3. At endpoints
  4. at any points
A
Q.40: Ball pen function on the principle of?
  1. Viscosity
  2. Surface tension
  3. Charle’s law
  4. Boyle’s law
A

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