If you are preparing for the PPSC Special Branch Punjab Police Technical Officer (Software) (BS-16) written test, www.easymcqs.com is the best website to enhance your preparations. As per the latest Punjab Public Service Commission (PPSC) notification, applications are being invited for the post of Technical Officer (Software) (BS-16) in the Special Branch, Punjab Police Department. The written test comprises One Paper MCQ Type Test of 100 Marks of 90 minutes duration, and the syllabus comprises only Qualification Related Questions (100%). So, the candidates must prepare themselves regarding computer science, software development, programming, database management, networking, operating system, software engineering, and other IT-related topics.
Special Technical Officer In Police
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Eligibility criteria for the job include M.Sc. in Computer Science, Master’s in Information Technology, or BCS (Hons) (4 Years) Second Division from a recognized University by HEC, along with a minimum of one year of experience in software development. As the test is qualification-based, applicants need to have good knowledge about core computer science subjects. The Quiz section of our website is particularly designed for providing coverage to all such topics which are usually asked in PPSC.
Our PPSC Jobs Test Preparation section includes thousands of MCQs on Programming Fundamentals, Object Oriented Programming (OOP), Data Structures, Algorithms, Database Management System (DBMS), SQL, Software Engineering, Operating System, Computer Networks, Web Technologies, Information Security, Artificial Intelligence, Computer Architecture, Digital Logic Designing, Computer Organization, Compiler Design, Software Testing, UML, Project Management, Cloud Computing, Data Communication, Internet Technologies, and General IT concepts. These MCQs are particularly picked according to the qualification-based syllabus given in the advertisement.
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Preparation for PPSC Rescue 1122 Emergency Officer (BS-17) written exam calls for a good study strategy and practice with real MCQs. PPSC has released job openings for the post of Emergency Officer (BS-17) in the Department of Emergency Services (Rescue 1122). All those candidates who fulfill the prescribed requirements and age criteria should start preparing as soon as possible for securing good marks in the competitive exam.
PPSC Rescue 1122 Quiz Test with Solved Answers
Written exam for PPSC Rescue 1122 Emergency Officer is of One Paper MCQ Type written test of 100 marks in 90 minutes. As per the advertisement, the syllabus includes General Ability, General Knowledge, Pakistan Studies, Current Affairs, Islamic Studies (General Knowledge for Non-Muslim candidates), Geography, Basic Mathematics, English, Urdu, Everyday Science, and Basic Computer Studies. The candidates will have to prepare themselves for a number of subjects hence they need to prepare well.
Our website has been especially developed in order to assist the candidates in preparing themselves for PPSC Jobs, Rescue 1122 recruitment tests, and other competitive exams. We offer solved MCQs with answers, quiz tests online, past paper questions, and practice tests developed according to the latest pattern of the examination. Each question has been carefully selected so that the candidate can comprehend various important concepts before taking the examination.
On this page, you can find 100 Most Important PPSC Rescue 1122 Emergency Officer MCQs in the form of an online quiz test. These questions have been compiled from past PPSC examinations, important subjects of competitive exams, and syllabus. The online quiz test helps the candidates to practice under the examination atmosphere and know their performance level before appearing in the examination.
The competition for the post of an Emergency Officer is very tough as there are candidates from engineering and medical fields too. Hence, practicing PPSC Rescue 1122 MCQs, learning current affairs, enhancing your English grammar, building up your basic mathematics and studying daily science is very important for securing a good score. Practice with solved objective questions will also help you in developing time management skills that become very important in a 90 minutes test.
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Get started with your preparation now with our free online PPSC Rescue 1122 Emergency Officer MCQs Quiz and practice the important questions to improve your chances of getting success in the Punjab Public Service Commission written test.
The Punjab Public Service Commission (PPSC) has issued Senior Medical Officer job vacancies on the contract mode for 03 years by the Specialized Healthcare & Medical Education Department. As per the notification, 02 posts are available on Open Merit. Those applying for this recruitment process should be well aware of the MBBS subjects since the written test will contain 100% MBBS related MCQs. If you are preparing for this job, EasyMCQs.com offers you the most comprehensive PPSC Senior Medical Officer solved MCQs, quizzes, past papers questions, and notes.
Medical Officer Jobs Tests MCQs Quiz
The eligibility criteria given in the announcement state that candidates must hold MBBS along with Post Graduation in Emergency Medicine, General Medicine, General Surgery, Orthopedic, or Cardiology, PMC/PMDC Registration Certificate and a minimum of four years of post-qualification work experience in the concerned subject. Males, females, and transgenders who satisfy the age and domicile limits set by the government may apply. The posting area will be the headquarters, and candidates from anywhere in Punjab province can apply.
Q.1: Which of the following findings would alert you as an EMT to suspect early hemorrhage in a 5 year old child?
Drooling of Bright red secretions
Pulse rate of 95 bpm
Vomiting of 25 ml of dark brown emesis
All of the above
D
Q.2: A truck travels at the rate of 80 km per hour. How much distance it travel in 30 minute?
40 km
45 km
115 km
160 km
A
Q.3: A bag contains 2 yellow, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is blue?
9/20
7/9
10/21
7/11
C
Q.4: PERRL is a term used in relation to what part of the body?
Arms
Eyes
Legs
Mouth
B
Q.5: Which one drug is used topically for genital herpes infection?
Fusidic Cream
Acyclovir
Nitonavir
Amantadine
B
Q.6: The normal Respiration range for a healthy adult should be between --------breaths per min.
30-60
12-20
18-30
None of these
D
Q.7: A Patient with profuse sweating is said to be?
Hypothermic
Diaphoretic
Diabetic
Pre-Eclampsia
B
Q.8: The muscle part of the heart is called:
Pericardium
Endocardium
Myocardium
Epicardium
C
Q.9: An infant develops Jaundice 6 hours after birth. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Haemolytic disease of the newborn
Physiological Jaundice
Umbilical Sepsis
Atresia of the bile ducts
A
Q.10: Without oxygen brain damage is likely after --------mins.
10-07
06-07
04-05
02-04
B
Q.11: The largest blood vessel in the body is the:
Aorta
Inferior Vena Cava
Pulmonary Vein
None of the above
A
Q.12: The appendix is situated in the:
Left Lower Quadrant
Right Upper Quadrant
Right lower Quadrant
Left Upper Quadrant
C
Q.13: When assessing for the pain is a toddler, which of the following methods would be the most appropriate?
Use a numeric Pain scale
Observe the child for restlessness
Ask the child about the pain
Assess for changes in vital signs
B
Q.14: Excessive cooling of a burn could result in which of the following?
Warts
Hyperthermia
Hypothermia
Infection
C
Q.15: A bacterial disease is to:
Laprosy
Chicken Pox
Influenza
Polio
A
Q.16: Immune deficiency syndrome could develop due to:
Defective Liver
Aids Virus
Defective thymus
Weak immune system
B
Q.17: Fatty change in the liver is due to the accumulation of:
Triglycerides
Cholesterol
LDL
VLDL
A
Q.18: Which is the more concerning for non-accidental injury in children?
Rib fracture in a two months old baby who climbed out to his cot
Femoral fracture in a ten year old involved in a road traffic accident
Rib fracture in a teenager playing rugby
Tibia fracture in an 8 year old playing football
A
Q.19: As an EMT correct dose of Asprin to administer to a 65 year old patient with chest pain is:
150 mg
300 mg
600 mg
75 mg
B
Q.20: You should assume that all unresponsive trauma patients have a:
Gag Reflex
Head Injury
Spinal Injury
Internal Injury
C
Q.21: Morphine toxicity can cause:
Diarrhea
Mydriasis
Respiratory Depression
All of the Above
D
Q.22: Metronidazol is prescribed for:
Aerobic Infection
Fungi Infection
Viral Infection
None of these
D
Q.23: The correct point of checking an infant’s pulse is:
Femoral
Radial
Carotid
Brachial
C
Q.24: What is first step in any type of patient assessment?
Check for Breathing
Scene Safety
Open Airway
Check Pulse
B
Q.25: What does BSI stands for:
Basic Safety Information
Body Substance Isolation
Body Substance Infection
Basic Scene Information
B
Q.26: The Phalanges are located in the:
Hand
Ear
Shoulder
None of these
A
Q.27: A pulse oximeter is used to:
Measure the pulse rate and white blood cells
Measure the pulse rate and oxygen in the blood.
Measure the pulse rate and amount of certain amount in blood
None of these
B
Q.28: Which of the following is true for Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation(CPR)?
A condition characterized by irregular rapid, jerky, movements, usually affecting the face, limbs and trunk.
A condition in which multiple noncancerous tremors called chaondromas, arise in the bones, most commonly the bones the hands and feet
A Character drug that is used to treat certain types of cancer.
None of these
D
Q.29: Cough is common side effect of:
At receptors Antagonist
Ace inhibitors
Both A & B
None of these
B
Q.30: Which of the following drug specifically inhibits uric acid synthesis?
Allopunnol
Celecoxib
Asprine
Probenecid
A
Q.31: Among the following, all are anti fungi except:
Ketoconazole
Amantadine
Fluconazole
Miconazole
B
Q.32: Ketamine is used in dislocation of shoulder to:
Reduce pain
Reduce muscle tone
Reduce heart rate
None of these
D
Q.33: Drugs which inhibits absorption of Cholesterol in the body is:
Nicotinic Acid
Ezetimibe
Lovestatin
None of these
B
Q.34: Which of the following is an important component for any bone related to implant?
Titanium
Calcium and phosphorus
Iron
Calcium Hudroxyapatite
B
Q.35: Arriving first to the scene, you find an unresponsive person with no pulse that has thrown up. You fee CPR is not something you are comfortable giving them. What would be the next best thing for you to do?
Wipe off the face or cover with shirt
Compression only CPR
Go and get help
Do not initiate resuscitation
B
Q.36: Where would a person having a heart attack most likely feel pain?
All of the above
Abdomen
In Chest
In Legs
C
Q.37: Critical incident stress debriefing is usually held within --------hours.
98
120
100
None of these
D
Q.38: How many lobes have both lungs?
4
5
6
7
B
Q.39: Cause of anaphylaxis shock is:
Spider’s Bite
Stroke
Choking
None of these
D
Q.40: The drug of choice for treating a newborn with presumed ductal-dependent cyanotic congenital heart disease is:
Dobutamine
Indomethacin
Prostaglandin E1
Morphine
C
Q.41: Which of the following drugs are proton pump inhibitors?
Omoprozole
Carpazapines
Sabutamol
None of these
A
Q.42: You highly suspect that your assigned client has abdominal sustention. You most need to do and chat which of the following things:
Have another nurse verify your soupspoons.
Measure Abdominal girth at the most distended level
Measure the abdominal girth at the Umbilical.
None of these
B
Q.43: What is the lower position of a heart called:
Apex
Base
Down Position
None of these
D
Q.44: Which medical condition will develop from severe blood loss?
Anaphylaxis
Grunting
Shock
Hypthermia
C
Q.45: The most concerning physical finding in an infant with an acute respiratory infection or RAD execration is:
Tachypnea
Hypoglycemia
Abdominal Breathing
Hypothermia
A
Q.46: Where should you place the AED pads when treating as infant for cardiac arrest?
Chest and Back
Do not use AED on an infant
Upper Chest and Mid Abdomen
Response Wherever they fit.
A
Q.47: The severity of a ligament injury progresses from:
Sprain to strain
Sprain to tear
Strain to tear
Strain to sprain
B
Q.48: All of the following are consistent with the diagnosis of bacterial trachetis Except:
Strider
Preceding viral URI
High Fever
Minimal Sputum production
B
Q.49: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 2 month old infant with a 10 day history of mild cough, who is in no distress in the ED and has a normal physical examination.
Viral bronchiolitis
Congenital Airway Anomaly
FB ingestion
Bacterial pneumonia
B
Q.50: How does an automatic external defibrillator (AED) help a person who is in cardiac arrest?
An AED restores normal heart rhythm
An AED pumps blood
An AED shocks the brain
An AED helps the victim breathe
A
Q.51: A person who suffers a traumatic rather than planned amputation has:
No risk of Infection
A greater risk of infection
No need for post operative analgesia
An increased need for oxygen
B
Q.52: After finding an unresponsive child, yelling for help, and confirming the child is not breathing what would be your next course of action?
Deliver 30 Chest Compression
Deliver Rescue breaths as most cardiac
Leave the child and search for an AED
Begin back blows and chest thrusts
A
Q.53: How does CPR help when a person goes into cardiac arrest?
It helps blood flow to the brain
It stats the heart beating again
It helps the blood flow to the heart
B & C
A
Q.54: Which disease causes difficulty in breathing?
Asthma
Autism
Astig
Anemia
A
Q.55: بلڈ پریشر زیادہ ہونے کا کیا کہا جاتا ہے؟
ہائپو ٹینشن
ہائپو گلیسیمیا
ہا ہپر ٹینشن
ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
C
Q.56: How many bones in a human body?
206
208
210
212
A
Q.57: The respiratory system of an Insect consist of :
Lungs
Esophagus
Trachea
None of these
C
Q.58: How many bones are there in human body?
206
300
306
250
A
Q.59: Anemia is:
Bloodlessness
Brain Disease
Respiratory Disease
Nervous Disease
A
Q.60: If you are transporting a patient with known airborne disease you should?
You should put a suspical mask on the patient
Put an oxygen mask on the patient
You should wait for hazechem team to arrive
None of these
D
Q.61: Shock is caused by:
Vomiting
Heart Attack
Nausea
None of these
D
Q.62: You are attending a call as an EMT your patient is a 4 years male in moderate pain. What is the appropriate intervention?
Ibuprofen 5mg
Morphine PO
Paracetamol 1 g PO
None of these
D
Q.63: What is best treatment for second degree burn?
Silva
Acid
Water
All of the above
A
Q.64: Early defibrillation is -------- step of adult chain of survival.
01
02
03
04
A
Q.65: Standard Oxygen mask delivered upto------------Oxygen.
60%
80%
100%
120%
A
Q.66: CBC stands for:
Complete Body Count
Complete Blood Count
Complete Blood Test
None of these
B
Q.67: Disease that spread through blood and other bodily fluids are :
Heart Attack
HIV Aids
Allergy
COPD
B
Q.68: What is per minute pulse beat rate of an infant ?
60-80
80-100
100-120
110-140
D
Q.69: The blood vessels supply blood to heart muscles are :
Coronary arteries
Blood Capillaries
Veins
None of these
A
Q.70: Blue coloration of skin due to deficiency of Oxygen is called:
Paral Morits
Cyanosis
Synchronization
None of these
B
Q.71: Sudden numbness and weakness of face, limbs on one side of the body are signs and symptoms of:
COPD
Epilepsy
Heart Attack
Brain Stroke
D
Q.72: Compression and Ventilation ratio during CPR of adult patient?
02 : 30
30 : 02
32 : 04
35 : 10
B
Q.73: Malaria is a disease which effects the:
Kidney
Spleen
Heart
Lungs
B
Q.74: BT stands for:
Bleeding Time
Blood Time
Bothe A & B
None of these
A
Q.75: Site for gaseous exchange in human is :
Alveolar Ducts
Alveoli
Bronchiole
Bronchi
B
Q.76: Breathing is controlled by the :
Ribs
Diaphragm
Lungs
Neck
B
Q.77: During F.A.S.T assessment, “A” stands for :
Arm Weakness
Orthopedic
Auto
Area of Body
A
Q.78: The S.A.P.L.E formula of patient history, “M” stands for in this formula :
Movement
Medications
Medical
None of these
B
Q.79: The finger placement for Chest Compression is:
Above the Nipple Line
Below the Nipple Line
Over the centre of Nipple Line
None of these
C
Q.80: In the two rescuers adult CPR situation the ratio of compression to ventilation is :
10 : 30
30 : 02
30 : 02
None of these
B
Q.81: CP stands for:
Complete Picture of Blood
Complete Picture
Count Picture of Blood
All of the above
A
Q.82: The dose of Aspirin for a patient with a suspected Heart Attack is --------.mg.
100
200
300
400
C
Q.83: In O.P.Q.R.S.T formula, the “S” stands for :
Severe
Shoulder
Special
None of these
A
Q.84: Opening of airway using head tilt chin left method in --------patients.
Trauma
Medical
Both A & B
None of these
B
Q.85: While performing FBAO on pregnant or obese, perform--------
Arm Thrust
Chest Thrust
Abdominal Thrust
Head Thrust
B
Q.86: Oxygen is an odorless & colorless gas, present in the atmosphere at --------and is essential for life.
21%
25%
20%
30%
A
Q.87: In heart muscle does not receive enough oxygen the condition is:
Heart Attack
Angina Pectoris
Cyanosis
None of these
B
Q.88: SGOT stands for:
Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic
Serum Gestro Oxaloacetic
Special Gultamic Oxaloacetic
None of these
A
Q.89: A wave of distention and elongation felt in blood walls due to contraction of left ventricle is:
Pulse
Pulse Rate
Both A & B
None of these
A
Q.90: Liquid component of blood is:
Plasma
WBCs
RBCs
Platelets
A
Q.91: AST stands for:
All Aminotransferase
Asparate Aminotransferase
Actuall Aminotransferase
None of these
B
Q.92: LFT stands for:
Last Function Test
Liver Function Test
Lungs Function Test
Living Function Test
B
Q.93: Do not suction longer then --------seconds in adult patient.
10
15
20
30
B
Q.94: Blood vessels that carry blood away from heart toward body tissues are called:
Arteries
Veins
Lymph Vessels
Capillaries
A
Q.95: Nasal Canola deliver Oxygen --------%
24-44
30-60
40-50
50-65
A
Q.96: Imaging yourself in other person’s situation is --------
Great
Empathize
Empathy
Sympathy
C
Q.97: During Infant CPR, if pulse rate is less then 60 with poor perfusion then --------
Apply AED
Ventilate
Continue CPR
All of the above
C
Q.98: The most initial rhythm in Sudden Cardiac Arrest is:
A Systole
Sinus Rhythm
Ventricular Defibrillation
None of these
C
Q.99: The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is:
CPR
Defibrillation
Use of OPA
Bandage
B
Q.100: The most common cause of upper airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient is:
False Teeth
A foreign body
Vomiting
A flaccid Tongue
D
The written test will be conducted in the form of a single paper MCQ test with 100 marks within the time limit of 90 minutes. As the syllabus for PPSC is based upon MBBS syllabus only, candidates must develop expertise in anatomy, physiology, pathology, pharmacology, microbiology, surgery, medicine, emergency medicine, cardiology, orthopedics, preventive medicine, and other branches of clinical sciences. Solving quality MCQs is the best strategy to improve speed and accuracy for the PPSC test.
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For those who wish to apply for the position of the PPSC Senior Medical Officer, start practicing from today with our solved MCQs, past papers, medical study notes, and online quiz tests. Our mission is to offer free and quality preparation material that allows medical professionals to perform exceptionally well in the PPSC written examination and interview. Get the complete set of SMOS MCQs with answers from EasyMCQs.com for a better performance in the PPSC recruitment process.
