Basic Concepts of Physical Chemistry Solved MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking solved MCQs with answers of Chemistry you are here on right place, on this page you will learn Basic concept of Physical Chemistry Solved Objective type MCQs with answers questions answers. Learn online here.

Chemistry Basic Concepts of MCQs
Solved Chemistry MCQs of Basic Concepts of Physical Chemistry

Basic Concepts of Physical Chemistry Solved MCQs Quiz Test


Q.1: The study of various laws and principles governing chemical and physical changes is known as?
  1. Analytical chemistry
  2. Inorganic chemistry
  3. Organic Chemistry
  4. Physical Chemistry
D
Q.2: Which of the following is not element?
  1. Silica
  2. Graphite
  3. Diamond
  4. Plastic sulphur
A
Q.3: The most abundant element in earth crust is?
  1. Oxygen
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Iron
  4. Aluminium
A
Q.4: Which of the following statements is correct?
  1. Air is a homogenous mixture
  2. A mixture is always heterogenous
  3. All elements are heterogenous
  4. Compounds made up of a number of elements are heterogeneous
A
Q.5: Which of the following processes results in a chemical change?
  1. Heating of a platinum rod
  2. Heating of iron rod
  3. Sublimation of ammonium chloride
  4. Dissolving of common salt in water
B
Q.6: Which of the following is not a mixture?
  1. Gasoline
  2. Distilled water
  3. Iodized table salt
  4. Sugar dissolved in water
B
Q.7: Which of the following statements false?
  1. Milk is a homogenous mixture
  2. Homogenous mixtures are called solutions
  3. An element of a substance contains only one kind of atoms
  4. A compound can be decomposed into its constituents
A
Q.8: A mixture of sand and ammonium chloride can be separated by?
  1. Chromatography
  2. Gravity separation
  3. Fractional crystallization
  4. Sublimation
D
Q.9: Calcium sulphate containing sodium sulphate as impurity is separated by?
  1. Filteration and crystallization
  2. Chromatography
  3. Fractional crystallization
  4. Sublimation
A
Q.10: Which of the following is not a compound?
  1. Ozone
  2. Marble
  3. Carborundum
  4. Quick lime
A
Q.11: Which of the following is incorrect with respect to SI units?
  1. Density in kg/m3
  2. Force in Newton
  3. Pressure in pascal
  4. Amount of substance in mol/L
D
Q.12: Which of the following is correct?
  1. 1dm3= 103 cm3
  2. 1L =10 dm3
  3. 1dm3= 10 L
  4. 1L = lm3
A
Q.13: The relationship between pecometer (pm)find nanometer (nm)is?
  1. 1 pm = 10 nm
  2. 1 nm =10 pm
  3. 1 pm = 100 nm
  4. 1 nm = 100 pm
D
Q.14: The atmospheric pressure of one torr is equal to?
  1. 1cm of Hg
  2. 1 atm pressure
  3. lm of Hg
    (D} 1 mm of Hg
D
Q.15: Which of the following liquid mixture cannot be separated by simple distillation?
  1. Benzene and toluene
  2. Water and ethanol
  3. Acetone and methanol
  4. Ethanol and methanol
B
Q.16: The percentage of hydrogen water and hydrogen peroxide is 11.1 and 5.9 % respectively. These figures illustrate?
  1. Avogadro’s law
  2. Law of conservation of mass
  3. Law of definite proportion
  4. Law of multiple proportion
D
Q.17: The balancing of chemical equation is based on?
  1. Avogadro’s law
  2. Law of conservation of mass
  3. Law of definite proportion
  4. Law of multiple proportion
B
Q.18: Oxygen combines with two isotopes of carbon (C12 and C14)to form two samples of carbon dioxide. The data illustrates?
  1. Law of reciprocal proportions
  2. Law of conservation of mass
  3. Law of definite proportion
  4. None of these
D
Q.19: Which of the following pairs of compound illustrate law of multiple proportions?
  1. C8OH, KOH
  2. D2O and H2O
  3. Benzene and ethane
  4. KI and KC1
C
Q.20: The atomic mass of an element is?
  1. The actual mass of one atom of the element
  2. The average relative mass of different atoms of the element
  3. Much different from the number of the element
  4. The relative mass of an atom of the element
B
Q.21: The isotopes of chlorine with mass number 35 and 37 exist in the ratio of?
  1. 1:1
  2. 3:1
  3. 1:3
  4. 3:2
B
Q.22: The correct value of Avogadro’s number is?
  1. 6.02342 x 1021
  2. 6.024 x 1022
  3. 6.02252 x 1023
  4. 6.6230 x 10-34
C
Q.23: One mole of the nitrogen gas is the volume of?
  1. One litre of nitrogen at STP
  2. 22.4 litres of nitrogen at STP
  3. 14 litres of nitrogen at STP
  4. 7 litres of nitrogen at STP
D
Q.24: Which of the following has maximum mass?
  1. 0.1 gram atom of nitrogen
  2. 0.1 mole of ammonia
  3. 6.022 x 1022 molecules of He gas
  4. 12 cm3 of carbon dioxide
D
Q.25: Total number of atoms present in 64g of SO2 is?
  1. 6.02 x 1022
  2. 6.02 x 1023
  3. 64 x 6.02 x 1023
  4. 64 x 6.02 x 1022
B
Q.26: The mass of One a.m.u is approximately?
  1. 1.0 g
  2. 2.0 g
  3. 1.66 x 1024 g
  4. 1.66 x 10-24 g
D
Q.27: Which of the following represents 1 gram molecule of a substance?
  1. 6.02 x I0 24 molecules of ammonia
  2. 4 gram of He
  3. 40 gram of CaO
  4. 127 gram of iodine
D
Q.28: Equal volumes of different gases at any definite temperature and pressure have?
  1. Equal masses
  2. Equal atoms
  3. Equal molecules
  4. Equal densities
C
Q.29: The equivalent mass of KMnO4 in acidic medium is (K = 39, Mn = 55, 0 = 16)?
  1. 158
  2. 15.8
  3. 31.6
  4. 3.16
C
Q.30: The weights of two elements which combine with one another are in the ratio of their?
  1. Atomic mass
  2. Molecular mass
  3. Equivalent mole
  4. Gram mole
C
Q.31: The number of moles of SO2 in 6.4 gram is?
  1. 0.1
  2. 0.2
  3. 0.01
  4. 0.02
A
Q.32: The empirical formula of oxalic acid is?
  1. CHO
  2. CH2O
  3. CHO2
  4. CH2O2
C
Q.33: A sample in the ionization chamber of mass spectrometer is ionized by?
  1. Electrons
  2. Protons
  3. Neutrons
  4. Nucleus
A
Q.34: Which of the following will form single peak in mass spectrograph?
  1. Iodine
  2. Arsenic
  3. Fluorine
  4. All of these
D
Q.35: Which one of the following contains maximum number of molecules?
  1. 16 gram methane
  2. 16 gram water
  3. 16 gram oxygen
  4. 16 gram sulphur dioxide
A
Q.36: Actual yield of a chemical reaction is always less than the theoretical yield because of?
  1. Reversible reactions
  2. Slid reactions
  3. By product formation
  4. All of these
D
Q.37: The number of peaks obtained in mass spectrometry shows?
  1. Charge on isotopes
  2. Mass of isotopes
  3. Number of isotopes
  4. Relative abundance of isotope
C
Q.38: Which of the following substances is used as CO2 absorber in combustion analysis?
  1. Lime water
  2. Dilute NaOH
  3. 50% KOH
  4. Mg(OH)2
C
Q.39: Which of the following properties is always in whole numbers?
  1. Atomic mass
  2. Atomic radius
  3. Atomic volume
  4. Atomic number
D
Q.40: The technique used to separate insoluble particles from liquid is:?
  1. Sublimation
  2. Crystallization
  3. Filtration
  4. Solvent extraction
D
Q.41: The process controlled by distribution law is?
  1. Sublimation
  2. Crystallization
  3. Filtration
  4. Solvent extraction
D
Q.42: Mixture of NaCl and chloride is separated by?
  1. Sublimation
  2. Crystallization
  3. Filtration
  4. Solvent extraction
A
Q.43: Which of the following substance is used as decolorizing agent?
  1. Silica gel
  2. Animal charcoal
  3. Asbestos
  4. Sulphuric acid
B
Q.44: Which of the foilowing is not Used drying agent in desiccators?
  1. NaCl solution
  2. CaCl2
  3. P2O5
  4. Silica gel
A
Q.45: The separation of miscible liquids by heating due to difference in boiling points is called?
  1. Vaporization
  2. Distillation
  3. Sublimation
  4. Condensation
B
Q.46: The component which shows maximum affinity towards stationary state will have?
  1. Large Rf value
  2. Small Rf value
  3. Intermediate Rf value
  4. None of the above
B
Q.47: Which of the following is not locating reagent?
  1. CS2
  2. Rubeanic acid
  3. H2S
  4. Ninhydrin
A
Q.48: Safe and most reliable method of drying crystals is:?
  1. Furnace
  2. Desiccator
  3. Oven
  4. None of the above
B
Q.49: The most suitable locating reagent for amino acids on paper chromatography is?
  1. Sulphuric acid
  2. Rubeanic acid
  3. H2S
  4. Ninhydrin
A
Q.50: The solid which is left over the filter paper is called?
  1. Filtrate
  2. Residue
  3. Crystals
  4. Aliquot
B

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 09 Reaction Kinetics MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Nine "Reaction Kinetics" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Nine objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.

Online MCQs Quiz Test Chemistry Kinetics
First Year Chemistry MCQs Unit 9 Reaction Kinetics Quiz Test

You will learn in this Chapter:

  • Rate of Reactions
  • Orders of reaction
  • Half-Life period
  • Determination of Rate of Chemical Reaction
  • Physical and Chemical methods
  • Energy of Activation
  • Finding order of reaction
  • Factors affecting the rate of reactions
  • Catalysis

Q.1: The activation energy of reaction?
  1. Includes the average kinetic energy of the reactants
  2. Is in addition to the average kinetic energy of the reactants
  3. Is in addition to the average kinetic energy of the products
  4. Required for effective collisions
D
Q.2: Ea appears as a potential energy hill between --------- for carrying out the reaction?
  1. Among the reactants
  2. Reactants and the products
  3. Among the products
  4. None of the above
B
Q.3: The slope of the curve between 1/T and log k gives?
  1. Reaction rate
  2. Both of the above
  3. Specific rate constant
  4. Activation energy
D
Q.4: The unit of the rate constant is the same as that of the rate of reaction in?
  1. 1st order reaction
  2. Zero-order reaction
  3. 2nd order reaction
  4. 3rd order reaction
B
Q.5: Arrhenius equation can be used for evaluating?
  1. Specific rate constant
  2. Both of the above
  3. Activation energy
  4. Half-life period
C
Q.6: A catalyst can?
  1. Accelerate the reaction rate
  2. Retard the reaction rate
  3. Chemically un-consumed at the end of the reaction
  4. All of the above
D
Q.7: The 2nd order reaction becomes 1st when?
  1. One of the reactants is limiting
  2. One of the reactants is in large excess
  3. None of the reactants is in large excess
  4. One of the reactants is acidic
B
Q.8: Oxidation of SO2(g) in the presence of NO(g) catalyst is an example of?
  1. Homogeneous catalysis
  2. Autocatalysis
  3. Heterogeneous catalysis
  4. Negative catalysis
A
Q.9: Oxidation of SO2(g) in the presence of V2O5(s) is an example of?
  1. Homogeneous catalysis
  2. Autocatalysis
  3. Heterogeneous catalysis
  4. Negative catalysis
C
Q.10: Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a catalyst?
  1. It is specific in its action
  2. Provides the reactants a low activation energy barrier
  3. Becomes chemically changed at the end of a reaction
  4. It can be poisoned by an impurity which deactivates its catalytic capability
C
Q.11: The specific rate constant of a chemical reaction is the rate of the reaction when the concentration of the reactant is?
  1. Less than unity
  2. Greater than unity
  3. Equal to unity
  4. Equal to the concentration of 2nd order reaction
C
Q.12: The half life for a 1st order decomposition of a substance dissolved in CCl4 is 2.5 hours at 30°C. The amount of substance left after 10 hours if the initial weight of the substance is 160g?
  1. 5g
  2. 15g
  3. 10
  4. 20g
C
Q.13: An endothermic reaction A → B has an activation energy 15kcal /mol and the heat of reaction 5kcal/mol. The activation energy for the reaction B → A will be?
  1. 20kcal/mol
  2. 10kcal/mol
  3. 15kcal/mol
  4. None of the above
B
Q.14: The rate of reaction is doubled for every 10°C rise in temperature. The increase in reaction rate as a result of temperature rise from 10°C to 100°C is?
  1. 112
  2. 400
  3. 512
  4. 614
C
Q.15: For the 1st order decomposition reaction 2N2O5 (g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g) the half-life is given as?
  1. 0.693/k
  2. log2/k
  3. 0.693/2k
  4. ln2/k
A
Q.16: Which one of the following is correct about the following reaction if the iron is not 100% pure?
2Fe + 3H2O + O2 → Fe2O3.3H2O?
  1. Very fast reaction
  2. Moderately reaction
  3. Very slow reaction
  4. Not predicted
C
Q.17: For a chemical reaction to occur?
  1. The vessel shall be open
  2. Reacting molecules should have less energy than Ea at the time of the collision
  3. Reacting molecules must be properly oriented and energy more than or equal to Ea
  4. The reacting molecules must not collide with each other
C
Q.18: The reaction that involves gases, its rate does not depend upon?
  1. Catalyst
  2. Partial pressure
  3. Temperature
  4. Moles dm-3
D
Q.19: The mathematical relation between the rate of reaction and the concentrations of the reactants is known as the?
  1. Rate equation
  2. Arrhenius equation
  3. Rate low
  4. Both a and c
C
Q.20: Which one affects the specific rate constant?
  1. Temperature
  2. Concentration of reactants
  3. Catalyst
  4. All of these
A
Q.21: Which one is a chemical method for the determination of the rate of reaction?
  1. Spectrometry
  2. Refractrometric method
  3. Dilatometric method
  4. Titration
D
Q.22: When the concentration of a reactant in the reaction is increased by 8 times, the rate increased only by 2 times. The order of the reaction is?
  1. 1
  2. ½
  3. 1/3
  4. 2
C
Q.23: The rate expression for a reaction A+B → products is rate = k [A]2/3 [B]-1/2 the order of reaction is?
  1. 0
  2. 5/2
  3. 3/2
  4. 1
D
Q.24: If 75% of any given amount of radioactive element disintegrates in 60 min. The half life of a radioactive element is.?
  1. 20 min
  2. 30 min
  3. 45 min
  4. 25 min
B
Q.25: The unit of rate constant depends on?
  1. Number of reactants
  2. Order of reaction
  3. Concentration terms
  4. Molecularity of reaction
B
Q.26: The unit of the rate constant of a second-order reaction is?
  1. mol dm-3 sec-1
  2. mol-2 dm+6
  3. sec-1
  4. mol-1 dm+3 sec-1
D
Q.27: The half-life period of the zero-order reaction is equal to?
  1. 0.693/K
  2. 1/Ka
  3. a/2
  4. 1.5/Ka2
C
Q.28: The influence of temperature on the reaction rate is predicted by?
  1. Free energy change of reaction
  2. Arrhenius equation
  3. Van der Waal’ equation
  4. Kinetic equation
B
Q.29: If the energy of the activated complex lies close to the energy of reactants, it means that reaction is?
  1. Slow
  2. Endothermic
  3. Exothermic
  4. Exothermic and fast
D
Q.30: Which of the following statements regarding a catalyst is not true?
  1. A catalyst does not alter the equilibrium in a reversible reaction
  2. A catalyst can initiate the reaction which is not thermodynamically favorable
  3. Catalytic reactions are very specific
  4. A catalyst remains unchanged in composition and quantity
B

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 08 Electrochemistry MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Eight "Electrochemistry" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Eight objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.

Electrochemistry MCQs Quiz Test
First Year Chemistry Chapter Eight Electrochemistry Notes

You will learn in this Chapter:

  • Oxidation State and Balancing of Redox Equations
  • Electrolytic Conduction
  • Electrolytic Cells
  • Voltaic and Galvanic Cells
  • Electrode Potential
  • Electrochemical Series
  • Rechargeable Batteries
  • Non-Rechargeable Batteries


Q.1: Magnesium metal is extracted by the electrolysis of its?
  1. A concentrated aqueous solution of its chloride
  2. Dilute aqueous solution on of its chloride
  3. Its fused chloride
  4. Any solution
C
Q.2: Iron can be prevented from rusting by?
  1. Connecting iron to more electropositive metal, a case of cathodic protection
  2. Connecting iron to more electropositive metal, a case of anodic protection
  3. Connecting iron to less electropositive metal, a case of anodic protection
  4. Connecting iron to less electropositive metal, a case of cathodic protection
B
Q.3: Standard hydrogen electrode has an arbitrarily fixed potential of?
  1. 0 V
  2. 0.1 V
  3. 1.0 V
  4. 0.001 V
A
Q.4: The correct order of equivalent conductance at infinite dilution among LiCl, NaCl, and KCl is?
  1. LiCl > NaCl > KCl
  2. NaCl > KCl > LiCl
  3. KCl > NaCl > LiCl
  4. LiCl > KCl > NaCl
C
Q.5: Electrochemical series is useful in?
  1. Prediction of the feasibility of a chemical reaction
  2. Calculation of voltage
  3. Comparison of the relative tendencies of the metals and non-metals to get oxidized or reduced
  4. All of the above
D
Q.6: A normal aluminum electrode coupled with a normal hydrogen electrode gives an emf of 1.66 volts and deflection of the needle towards Hydrogen. The standard electrode potential of aluminum is?
  1. -1.66 V
  2. -0.83 V
  3. +1.66 V
  4. +0.83 V
A
Q.7: If the sum of Eo values of the two half cells is negative, then?
  1. The reaction will be feasible
  2. The reaction may or may not be feasible
  3. The reaction will not be feasible
  4. No prediction can be made
C
Q.8: Which of the following cell can convert chemical energy directly into electrical energy?
  1. Mercury cell
  2. Lead storage battery
  3. Daniel cell
  4. Fuel cell
D
Q.9: In a galvanic cell, the electrode occupying a lower position in the electrochemical series?
  1. Will act as a cathode
  2. The reduction will take place on it
  3. Oxidation will take place on it
  4. Both a and b
D
Q.10: Which of the following statement is true about galvanic cell?
  1. The anode is positively charged
  2. The cathode is positively charged
  3. Reduction occurs at the anode
  4. Reduction occurs at the cathode
D
Q.11: Greater the value of the standard reduction potential of the given species?
  1. Greater is its tendency to accept electrons to undergo reduction
  2. Greater is its tendency to accept electrons to undergo oxidation
  3. Greater is its tendency to lose electrons to undergo reduction
  4. Greater is its tendency to lose electrons to undergo oxidation
A
Q.12: Coinage metals have the least reactivity because they have?
  1. Positive oxidation potentials
  2. Zero oxidation potentials
  3. Positive reduction potentials
  4. Zero reduction potentials
C
Q.13: Which of the following is a secondary cell?
  1. Dry cell
  2. Ni-Cd cell
  3. Mercury cell
  4. Alkali cell
B
Q.14: Four metals A, B, C, and D are having standard electrode potential as -3.05, -1.66, -0.4, and 0.8V respectively. Which one will be the best reducing agent?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
A
Q.15: The oxidation potential of Mg and Al are +2.37 and 1.66V, respectively. The Mg is a chemical reaction?
  1. Will be replaced by Al
  2. Won’t be able to replace Al
  3. Will replace Al
  4. None of the above
C
Q.16: Which can replace hydrogen from dilute acids?
  1. Au
  2. Zn
  3. Pt
  4. None of these
B
Q.17: The oxidation state of carbon-atom in glucose is?
  1. +4
  2. +6
  3. -4
  4. None of these
D
Q.18: The cell in which electrical energy is converted into chemical energy is?
  1. Galvanic cell
  2. Electrolytic cell
  3. Voltaic cell
  4. All of these
B
Q.19: The ability of elements to act as reducing agent --------- down to electrochemical series.?
  1. Increases
  2. Remain constant
  3. Decreases
  4. Depends upon the reaction conditions
C
Q.20: If a strip of Cu-metals is placed in a solution of FeSO4 then?
  1. Cu will be deposited
  2. Cu and Fe both dissolve
  3. Fe is precipitated
  4. No reaction occur
D
Q.21: “Al” metal is extracted from its -------- during electrolysis.?
  1. Chlorides
  2. Cryolite
  3. Oxides
  4. All of these
C
Q.22: Halogens are placed at the lower level of electrochemical series, this indicates that?
  1. Halogens are good reducing agents
  2. Halogens are an oxidizing agent but bad reducing agents
  3. Halogens are good oxidizing agent as well as good reducing agents
  4. All the above statements are correct
B
Q.23: The electrolysis product of molten NaCl at electrodes?
  1. Na and Cl2
  2. Na and NaOH
  3. H2 and Cl2
  4. H2, Cl2, and NaOH
A
Q.24: SHE acts as an anode when connected with Cu electrode but cathode with Zn electrode because?
  1. Zn has less reduction potential than hydrogen and Cu more
  2. Zn has less oxidizing potential than hydrogen and Cu more
  3. Zn is above in electrochemical series than hydrogen and Cu below
  4. All the above are possible reasons
A
Q.25: When an element is in contact with 1M aqueous solution of its own ions, at 298K then the potential is called?
  1. Standard reduction potential
  2. Reduction potential
  3. Standard electrode potential
  4. Both a and c
D
Q.26: Gold and silver are the least reactive due to?
  1. Positive oxidation potential
  2. Zero oxidation potential
  3. Positive reduction potential
  4. Having a large negative electrode potential
C
Q.27: During the electrolysis of aqueous KNO3, H2 is produced at cathode instead of potassium due to?
  1. The reduction potential of K is greater than hydrogen
  2. Hydrogen is more reactive than potassium
  3. The reduction potential of potassium is less than hydrogen
  4. All of the above are possible reasons
C
Q.28: Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Zn can replace Cu2+ in CuSO4
  2. Cu can replace H+ in H2SO4
  3. Cu can replace Zn2+ in ZnSO4
  4. None of these
A
Q.29: In a reaction Zn + HNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + NO + H2O?
  1. Zn is reduced
  2. N is oxidized
  3. N is reduced
  4. Hydrogen is reduced
C
Q.30: Which one metal shows the maximum oxidation state?
  1. Mn
  2. Ag
  3. Cr
  4. Hg
A

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 07 Solutions MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Seven "Solutions" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Seven objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.

11th Chemistry Notes
First Year Chemistry Chapter Seven Notes


You will learn in this Chapter:

  • Concentration Units of Solution
  • Types of Solution
  • Raoult’s Law
  • Vapour Pressure of Liquid-Liquid Solutions
  • Solubility and Solubility Curves
  • Colligative Properties of Solutions
  • Energetic of Solution
  • Hydration and Hydrolysis


Q.1: 10g NaOH is dissolved in 1000g water. The molality of NaOH is?
  1. 1m
  2. 0.5m
  3. 4m
  4. 0.25m
D
Q.2: 250cm3 of 0.2 molar potassium sulphate solution is mixed with 250cm3 of 0.2 molar KCl solution. The molar concentration of K+ ions is?
  1. 0.2 molar
  2. 0.3 molar
  3. 0.25 molar
  4. 0.35 molar
B
Q.3: The molality of pure water is?
  1. 1
  2. 55.5
  3. 18
  4. 6
B
Q.4: Molal boiling point constant is the ratio of the elevation in the boiling to?
  1. Molarity
  2. Mole fraction of solvent
  3. Molality
  4. Mole fraction of the solute
C
Q.5: The number of molecules of sugar in 1dm3 of 1M sugar solution is?
  1. 6.02 x 1023
  2. 3.42 x 6.02 x 1022
  3. 6.02 x 1020
  4. None of the above
A
Q.6: Colligative properties can be used for calculating?
  1. The density of a compound
  2. The lattice energy of a compound
  3. The molecular mass of a compound
  4. All of the above
C
Q.7: 18g glucose is dissolved in 90g water. The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to?
  1. 1/5
  2. 1/51
  3. 5.1
  4. 1/55.5
B
Q.8: A solution has 92g ethanol, 96g methanol, and 90g water. Mole fraction of water in the solution is?
  1. 0.1
  2. 0.4
  3. 0.2
  4. 0.5
D
Q.9: Elevation of boiling point can be best studied by?
  1. Beckmann’s method
  2. Landsberger’s method
  3. Gibb’s method
  4. None of the above
B
Q.10: For observing Colligative properties, which of the following conditions should be fulfilled?
  1. The solution should be dilute
  2. Solute should be non-electrolyte
  3. Solute should be non-volatile
  4. All of the above
D
Q.11: When the solvent is containing non-volatile solute particles, then?
  1. Vapor pressure is decreased
  2. Vapor pressure doesn’t change
  3. Vapor pressure is elevated
  4. Volume is decrease
A
Q.12: The freezing point is the temperature of the substance at which its solid and liquid phases have the?
  1. Different vapor pressure
  2. Same volume
  3. Same vapor pressure
  4. Same density
C
Q.12: A solution of glucose is 10%. The volume in which 1g mole of it will be dissolved is?
  1. 1 dm3
  2. 200 dm3
  3. 1.8 dm3
  4. 180 dm3
C
Q.13: Which of the following is not a colligative property?
  1. Density
  2. Elevation of boiling point
  3. Depression in freezing point
  4. Osmotic pressure
A
Q.14: The substances which don’t dissolve in a reasonable amount in a particular solvent are-----.?
  1. Miscible
  2. Well soluble
  3. Sparingly soluble
  4. Insoluble
C
Q.15: Which one of the following solution of glucose in water is more dilute?
  1. 0.1 molar
  2. 0.1 molal
  3. 1% w/w
  4. All have the same concentration
B
Q.15: Which liquid solute is dissolved in the liquid solvent, then the best unit of concentration is?
  1. % w/w
  2. % w/v
  3. % v/v
  4. % v/w
C
Q.16: Which of the following is an example of solid in solid solution?
  1. Dust particles in smoke
  2. Opals
  3. Mercury metal in silver metal
  4. All of the above
B
Q.17: A colligative property is not represented by?
  1. Elevation of boiling point
  2. Osmotic pressure
  3. Freezing point
  4. Relative lowering of vapor pressure
C
Q.18: A solution of KCl in water contains?
  1. Free formula units
  2. Free ions
  3. Free atoms
  4. Free molecules
B
Q.19: For very dilute solution the following expression is used?
  1. Gram per million
  2. Nanogram per million
  3. Microgram per million
  4. Parts per million
D
Q.20: That solution which possesses a maximum concentration of solute at a given temperature is known as?
  1. Unsaturated
  2. Saturated
  3. Supersaturated
  4. Dilute solution
B
Q.21: Which of the following 0.1 m solution will have the lowest freezing point?
  1. K2SO4
  2. NaCl
  3. Glucose
  4. Urea
A
Q.22: Which has the highest freezing point?
  1. 1.0 m NaCl
  2. 1.0 m CaCl2
  3. 1.0 m Urea
  4. 1.0 m KCl
C
Q.23: Which of the following statement is true about ideal solutions?
  1. The change in volume is zero
  2. The change in enthalpy is zero
  3. The vapor pressure change is zero
  4. Both a and b
D
Q.24: The addition of sodium chloride to water, while boiling eggs results to?
  1. Decrease boiling point of water
  2. Increase the boiling point of water
  3. Prevent breaking of eggs
  4. Make egg tasty
B
Q.25: Which pair of the following will not form an ideal solution?
  1. C2H5Br + C2H5I
  2. H2O + C4H9OH
  3. C6H14 + C7H16
  4. CCl4 + SiCl4
B
Q.26: The study of elevation of boiling point is called?
  1. Ebullioscopy
  2. Cryoscopy
  3. Osmometer
  4. None of these
A
Q.27: A solution of glucose is 10% w/v. The volume in which 1g mole of it is dissolved will be?
  1. 1dm3
  2. 200 cm3
  3. 900 cm3
  4. 1.8 dm3
D
Q.28: The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to?
  1. Mole fraction of solvent
  2. Mole fraction of solution
  3. The molar mass of solute
  4. Mole fraction of solute
D

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 06 Chemical Equilibrium MCQs Quiz Test

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First Year Chemistry MCQs
First Year Chemistry Chemical Equilibrium MCQs

You will learn in this Chapter:

  • Reversible and Irreversible Reactions
  • State of Chemical Equilibrium
  • Law of mass action
  • Equilibrium Constants
  • Applications of Equilibrium Constants
  • Le-Chatilier’s Principle
  • Applications of Chemical Equilibrium in Industry
  • Ionic Product of Water
  • Ionization Constants of Acids/Base
  • Lowry Bronsted Acid-Base Concept
  • Common Ion Effect
  • Buffer Solution
  • Buffer Capacity
  • Solubility Product


Q.1: What will be the pH of 1.0 mol dm-3 of H2X, which is only 50% dissociated??
  1. 1
  2. 0
  3. 2
  4. Less than 0
B
Q.2: What will be the pH of 1.0 mol dm-3 of NH4OH, which is 1% dissociated??
  1. 2
  2. 12
  3. 0
  4. 2.7
B
Q.3: Buffer solutions are used in except??
  1. Clinical analysis
  2. Nutrition
  3. Soil science
  4. Qualitative analysis
D
Q.4: Buffer action can be explained by except??
  1. Common ion effect
  2. Le-Chatelier’s principle
  3. Law of mass action
  4. Solubility product
D
Q.5: At equilibrium, the concentration of reactants and products are?
  1. Constant
  2. Maximum
  3. Different
  4. Equal
A
Q.6: In the reaction A2(g) + 4B2(g) ⇌ 2AB4(g) such that ΔH < 0;the formation of AB4(g)will be favoured at?
  1. Low temperature and high pressure
  2. High temperature and low pressure
  3. Low temperature and low pressure
  4. High temperature and high pressure
A
Q.7: Consider the reaction PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3(g) +Cl2 in a closed container at equilibrium. At a fixed temperature, what will be the effect of adding more PCl5 on the equilibrium constant??
  1. It increases
  2. It remains unaffected
  3. It decreases
  4. Can’t be predicted without KP
B
Q.8: The oxidation of SO2 to SO3 is an exothermic reaction. The yield of SO3 will be maximum if?
  1. Temperature is increased and pressure is kept constant
  2. Temperature is reduced and pressure is increased
  3. Both temperature and pressure are increased
  4. Both temperature and pressure are decreased
B
Q.9: If the concentration of salt is greater than the acid in buffer solution, then the??
  1. pH = pKa
  2. pH = pKb
  3. pH > pKa
  4. pH > pKb
A
Q.10: In a saturated solution of AgCl, the molar concentration of Ag+ and Cl– is 1.0 x 10-5 M each. What is the value of Ksp??
  1. 1.0 x 10-5
  2. 0.1 x 10-5
  3. 1.0 x 10-15
  4. 1.0 x 10-10
D
Q.11: The solubility of Fe(OH)3 is x molar per dm3. Its Ksp would be?
  1. 9x3
  2. 27x4
  3. 3x4
  4. 9x4
B
Q.12: For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g). The equilibrium constant changes with?
  1. Total pressure
  2. The concentration of H2 and I2
  3. Catalyst
  4. Temperature
D
Q.13: The decomposition of N2O4 to NO2 is carried out at 280°C in chloroform. When equilibrium is reached, 0.2 moles of N2O4 and 0.02 mole of NO2 are present in 1:1 ratio. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2O4 →2NO2 is------.?
  1. 0.01
  2. 0.001
  3. 0.02
  4. 0.002
D
Q.14: In a given system, water and ice are in equilibrium, if the pressure is applied to the above system then?
  1. More ice is formed
  2. The amount of ice and water will remain the same
  3. More ice is melted
  4. Both a and b
C
Q.15: The solubility product of AgCl is 2.0 x 10-10 mol2dm-6. The maximum concentration of Ag+ ions in the solution is?
  1. 1.41 x 10-5 mol2 dm-6
  2. 1.41 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6
  3. 2.0 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6
  4. 4.0 x 10-20 mol2 dm-6
A
Q.16: An excess of silver nitrate is added to the aqueous barium chloride and the precipitate is removed by filtration. What are the main ions in the filtrate??
  1. Ag+ and NO–3 only
  2. NO–3 and Ba+2 only
  3. Ag+ and NO–3 and Ba+2 only
  4. Cl– and NO–3 and Ba+2 only
C
Q.17: The pH of 10-4 mole dm-3of HCl?
  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 5
B
Q.18: The most suitable temperature for preparing ammonia gas is?
  1. 250°C
  2. 450°C
  3. 350°C
  4. 550°C
B
Q.19: The Kw of water at 25°C is given by?
  1. 10-7
  2. 10-10
  3. 10-12
  4. 10-14
D
Q.20: When HCl gas is passed through the saturated solution of rock salt, the solubility of NaCl?
  1. Increases
  2. May increases or decreases
  3. Decreases
  4. None of these
C
Q.21: For what value of Kc almost forward reaction is complete??
  1. Kc = 10-30
  2. Kc = 1
  3. Kc = 1030
  4. Kc = 0
C
Q.22: In which of the following Equilibria will Kc and Kp have not the same value??
  1. 2HI ⇌ H2 + I2
  2. 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3
  3. N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO
  4. All of these
B
Q.23: If the temperature is increased of the following reaction, then will go in
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 ∆H = -Ve?
  1. Forward direction
  2. Remain constant
  3. Reverse direction
  4. Cannot be predicted
C
Q.24: The pH of an aqueous solution is 3.0 at 25°C. The hydrogen ion concentration in the solution would be?
  1. 0.001
  2. 0.01
  3. 0.0001
  4. 10-5
A
Q.25: Which one is very weak acid??
  1. HF
  2. H2CO3
  3. HCl
  4. H2O
D
Q.26: Which one increases by common ion effect except??
  1. Crystallization
  2. Solubility
  3. Association of ions
  4. All of these
B
Q.27: A basic buffer solution can be prepared by mixing?
  1. Strong acid and it is a salt with a weak base
  2. Strong base and it is a salt with weak acid
  3. Weak base and it is a salt with a strong acid
  4. Weak acid and it is a salt with strong base
C
Q.28: Which one is the best buffer those have?
  1. pH = pKa
  2. pH > pKa
  3. pOH < pKb
  4. pKa = 0
A
Q.29: The pH of an ideal buffer is?
  1. 10
  2. 7
  3. Less than 7
  4. 0
B
Q.30: If the ionic product is equal to Ksp then the solution is?
  1. Unsaturated
  2. Ideal
  3. Supersaturated
  4. Saturated
D

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 05 Thermochemistry MCQs Quiz Test

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Thermochemistry MCQs Quiz Test
1st Year Chemistry MCQs Thermochemistry Quiz Test

You will learn in this Chapter:

  • Spontaneous and non-spontaneous reaction
  • System, Surrounding and State Function
  • Internal Energy
  • 1st law of Thermodynamics
  • Enthalpy of a reaction
  • Measurement of Enthalpy
  • Hess’s Law
  • Born-Haber Cycle


Q.1: Enthalpy of neutralization of strong acids and strong bases have the same values because?
  1. Neutralization leads to the formation of salt and water
  2. Strong acids and bases are ionic substances
  3. Acids always give rise to H+ and bases always furnish OH-1 ions
  4. The net change involves the combination of H+ and OH-1 ions form water
D
Q.2: For an endothermic reaction, enthalpy of reactants?
  1. Is smaller than that of the products
  2. Is greater than that of the products
  3. Is equal to that of the products
  4. Must be greater or smaller than that of the products
A
Q.3: Which of the following has a positive value of enthalpy?
  1. Neutralization
  2. Atomization
  3. Combustion
  4. All of the above
B
Q.4: The net heat change in the chemical reaction is the same whether it is brought about in two or more different ways in one or several steps. It is known as?
  1. Henry’s law
  2. Hess’s law
  3. Joule’s principal
  4. Law of conservation of energy
B
Q.5: Hess’s law is analogous to?
  1. Law of heat summation
  2. Law of increasing entropy
  3. Law of heat exchange
  4. 1st law of thermodynamics
A
Q.6: NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Enthalpy change in the above reaction is called?
  1. Enthalpy of reaction
  2. Enthalpy of neutralization
  3. Enthalpy of formation
  4. Enthalpy of combustion
B
Q.7: A hypothetical reaction X → 2Yproceeds by the following sequence of steps:
1/2X → Z ∆H = q1
Z → 2W ∆H = q2
W → 1/2Y ∆H = q3
The values for the ∆H of the reaction is?
  1. q1 + q2 + q3
  2. 2(q1 + q2 + q3)
  3. 2q1 + 2q2 + 3q3
  4. 2(q1 + q2 + q3)
C
Q.8: Calories are equivalent to?
  1. 0.4184 J
  2. 40.18 J
  3. 4.184 J
  4. 418.4 J
C
Q.9: The values of ∆H for the process I(g) + e-1 → I-1(g) is?
  1. > 0
  2. 0
  3. < 0
  4. None of the above
C
Q.10: The enthalpy of formation of a compound is?
  1. Positive
  2. Either positive or negative
  3. Negative
  4. None of the above
B
Q.11: What is correct about the heat of combustion?
  1. It is positive in some cases while negative in other
  2. It is applicable to gaseous substances only
  3. It is always negative
  4. It is always positive
C
Q.12: What is not correct about ∆Hf??
  1. Its value gives an idea about the relative stability of reactants and the products
  2. It is always negative
  3. Values depend upon the nature of bonds
  4. Its value can be greater or less than zero
B
Q.13: If an endothermic reaction is allowed to take place very rapidly in air, the temperature of the surrounding air will??
  1. Remains constant
  2. Decrease
  3. Increase
  4. Either increase or decrease
D
Q.14: When a solid melts, there is?
  1. Increase in entropy
  2. The decrease in internal energy
  3. Increase in enthalpy
  4. Both a and b
D
Q.15: The heat of reaction depends upon?
  1. The temperature of the reactants
  2. Physical states of the reactants and the products
  3. Both a and b
  4. Path of the reaction and the temperature
B
Q.16: The exothermic process is?
  1. Evaporation
  2. Respiration
  3. Sublimation
  4. Boiling
B
Q.17: During an exothermic or endothermic reaction which one of the following formulae is used to calculate the amount of heat evolved or absorbed-----?
  1. ∆H = ∆E + PV
  2. ∆p = ∆H
  3. ∆E = q + w
  4. q = m x s x ∆T
D
Q.18: Most of the reactions which give stable products are?
  1. Endothermic
  2. Isothermal
  3. Exothermic
  4. None of these
C
Q.19: The measurement of enthalpy change at standard conditions means that we should manage the measurement that------?
  1. 24°C at 1 atm
  2. 0°C at 1 atm
  3. 25°C at 1 atm
  4. 100°C 1 at atm
B
Q.20: The total heat content of a system is called-------?
  1. Internal energy
  2. Enthalpy
  3. Entropy
  4. All of these
B
Q.21: The enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are?
  1. Unity
  2. Always +ve
  3. Always –ve
  4. Zero
D
Q.22: A state function which describes together the internal energy and product of pressure and volume is called-------?
  1. Enthalpy
  2. Internal energy
  3. Work
  4. Kinetic energy
A
Q.23: The enthalpy change for the reaction C2H2 + 5/2 O2 → 2CO2 + H2O is brown as enthalpy of?
  1. Formation of CO2
  2. Combustion of C2H2
  3. Fusion of C2H2
  4. Vaporization of C2H2
B
Q.24: The value of ∆V is very small. The term P∆V can be neglected for the process involving?
  1. Liquid and gas
  2. Liquid and solid
  3. Solid and gases
  4. None of these
B
Q.25: The lattice energy of NaCl is?
  1. 787 J/mole
  2. 780 kJ/mol
  3. 790 kJ/mol
  4. -787 kJ/mole
D
Q.26: Decomposition of H2O is?
  1. Endothermic reaction
  2. Exothermic reaction
  3. Nuclear reaction
  4. Zero nuclear reaction
A
Q.27: According to Hess’s Law, the enthalpy change for a reaction?
  1. Depends on path
  2. The sum of ∆E and ∆H
  3. Independent of the path
  4. None of these
C
Q.28: Enthalpy of formation of one mole of an ionic compound from gaseous ion under standard condition is called------?
  1. Gibb’s energy
  2. Lattice energy
  3. Bond energy
  4. All of these
B
Q.29: Choose from the following the correct statement about Born Harbor cycle?
  1. Born Harbor cycle is different from Hess’s law
  2. The energy changes in a cyclic process is not zero
  3. The lattice energy of crystalline substances can be calculated easily
  4. None of these
C
Q.30: Change in enthalpy of ∆H a system can be calculated by the following relationship?
  1. ∆H = ∆E-PV
  2. ∆H = ∆E-Q
  3. ∆H = ∆E+q
  4. ∆H = ∆E+P∆V
D

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 04 Chemical Bonding MCQs Quiz Test

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Chemical Bounding MCQs
First Year Chemistry Chemical Bounding MCQs Quiz Test

You will learn in this Chapter:

  • Chemical Bond
  • Atomic Sizes
  • Ionization Energy, Electron Affinity and Electronegativity
  • Lewis Concept
  • Theories of Covalent Bond
  • Atomic Orbit Hybridization
  • Molecular Orbit Theory
  • Bond Energy, Bond length and Dipole Moment

Q.1: Oxy-acids of halogens has the co-ordinate covalent bond between?
  1. Hydrogen and oxygen
  2. Hydrogen and hydrogen
  3. Halogens and oxygen
  4. Oxygen and oxygen
C
Q.2: Which of the following has a perfect triangular structure?
  1. CO2
  2. NO
  3. PH3
  4. SO3
D
Q.3: Limitation of valance bond theory (VBT) is that?
  1. It doesn’t address the shapes of the molecules
  2. It doesn’t involve the criteria of bond formation
  3. It doesn’t involve the concept of valency
  4. None of the above
A
Q.4: End to end overlapping of orbitals give rise to the formation of?
  1. Sigma bond
  2. Metallic bond
  3. Pi bond
  4. Coordinate covalent bond
A
Q.5: Side by side overlapping of orbitals gives rise to the formation of?
  1. Sigma bond
  2. Metallic bond
  3. Pi bond
  4. Ionic bond
C
Q.6: In sp3 hybridized orbital, the s character is?
  1. 25%
  2. 75%
  3. 50%
  4. 100%
A
Q.7: Dipole moment gives the information about?
  1. % ionic character
  2. The geometry of the molecules
  3. Bond angles
  4. All of the above
D
Q.8: Bonding affects properties like?
  1. Solubility
  2. Reaction kinetics
  3. Melting, boiling points, and isomerism
  4. All of these
D
Q.9: In sp2 hybridized orbital, the s character is-------.?
  1. 11.11%
  2. 33.33%
  3. 22.22%
  4. 44.44%
B
Q.10: An ionic compound A+B– is most likely to form when?
  1. The ionization energy of A is high and electron affinity of B is low
  2. The ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of B is high
  3. Both the ionization energy and the electron affinity of A and B are high
  4. Both the ionization energy and the electron affinity of A and B are low
B
Q.11: The bond order of nitrogen molecule and neon?
  1. 2 and 1
  2. 3 and 0
  3. 0 and 3
  4. 2 and 0
B
Q.12: Which of the following blocks will have comparatively higher electron affinity??
  1. s block
  2. f block
  3. p block
  4. d block
C
Q.13: Which one of the following has the maximum number of sp2 carbon atoms?
  1. Benzene
  2. Methane
  3. CCl4
  4. Ethene
A
Q.14: The process in which the orbitals of different energies and shape mix with each other to give equivalent hybrid orbitals is called?
  1. Dissolution
  2. Hybridization
  3. Resonance
  4. Ionization
B
Q.15: The structure of water is?
  1. Trigonal
  2. Angular
  3. Linear
  4. Tetragonal
B
Q.16: In a crystal, cations and anions are held together by?
  1. Sharing of electrons
  2. Nuclear forces
  3. Electrostatic forces
  4. Electrons
C
Q.17: Ionic compounds are obtained by the combination of groups?
  1. 3 and 5
  2. 1 and 7
  3. 2 and 5
  4. 4 and 8
B
Q.18: In a double bond connecting 2 atoms, there is a sharing of?
  1. 1 electron
  2. 2 electrons
  3. 3 electrons
  4. two-electron pairs
D
Q.19: F2 molecule is formed by the overlap of?
  1. s-s orbital
  2. s-p orbital
  3. p-p head-on overlapping of orbitals
  4. p-p parallel overlapping of orbitals
C
Q.20: Which of the following compounds has a non-directional bond??
  1. BF3
  2. KBr
  3. Mg CO3
  4. NF3
B
Q.21: The structure of CrO-24 is?
  1. Tetrahedral
  2. Octahedral
  3. Cubic
  4. Triclinic
A
Q.22: Number of electrons shared in SF6 molecule is-------.?
  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 12
D
Q.23: The following molecules has a linear structure except??
  1. CS2
  2. SO2
  3. CO2
  4. BeCl2
B
Q.24: Which of the following species has lone pair of electrons on the central atom??
  1. CH4
  2. NH+4
  3. PCl5
  4. PCl3
D
Q.25: The shape of H3O+ is?
  1. Tetrahedral
  2. Angular
  3. Pyramidal
  4. Trigonal planar
C
Q.26: Which pair has trigonal planar geometry??
  1. NH3, PH3
  2. H2O, C2H2
  3. BF3, AlH3
  4. CO2, SO2
C
Q.27: Which of the following statements is not correct??
  1. The double bond is stronger than the single bond
  2. σ bond is stronger than π bond
  3. The triple bond is shorter than a double bond
  4. σ bond is weaker than π bond
D
Q.28: A molecule in which the distance between two carbon atom is largest is---------.?
  1. Ethane
  2. Ethene
  3. Ethyne
  4. Benzene
A
Q.29: All the metals shine when they are freshly cut. The reason is?
  1. The conductivity of the metal is increased
  2. The process of cutting gives energy to the metal atoms
  3. The electron becomes less delocalized according to valance bond theory
  4. The electrons are excited at higher energy levels and emit the photons when they fall back
D
Q.30: Total number of valance electrons of a nitrogen atom in an ammonium ion is?
  1. 6
  2. 10
  3. 8
  4. 16
C

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