If you are looking solved MCQs with answers of Chemistry you are here on right place, on this page you will learn Basic concept of Physical Chemistry Solved Objective type MCQs with answers questions answers. Learn online here.
Solved Chemistry MCQs of Basic Concepts of Physical Chemistry
Basic Concepts of Physical Chemistry Solved MCQs Quiz Test
Q.1: The study of various laws and principles governing chemical and physical changes is known as?
Analytical chemistry
Inorganic chemistry
Organic Chemistry
Physical Chemistry
D
Q.2: Which of the following is not element?
Silica
Graphite
Diamond
Plastic sulphur
A
Q.3: The most abundant element in earth crust is?
Oxygen
Nitrogen
Iron
Aluminium
A
Q.4: Which of the following statements is correct?
Air is a homogenous mixture
A mixture is always heterogenous
All elements are heterogenous
Compounds made up of a number of elements are heterogeneous
A
Q.5: Which of the following processes results in a chemical change?
Heating of a platinum rod
Heating of iron rod
Sublimation of ammonium chloride
Dissolving of common salt in water
B
Q.6: Which of the following is not a mixture?
Gasoline
Distilled water
Iodized table salt
Sugar dissolved in water
B
Q.7: Which of the following statements false?
Milk is a homogenous mixture
Homogenous mixtures are called solutions
An element of a substance contains only one kind of atoms
A compound can be decomposed into its constituents
A
Q.8: A mixture of sand and ammonium chloride can be separated by?
Chromatography
Gravity separation
Fractional crystallization
Sublimation
D
Q.9: Calcium sulphate containing sodium sulphate as impurity is separated by?
Filteration and crystallization
Chromatography
Fractional crystallization
Sublimation
A
Q.10: Which of the following is not a compound?
Ozone
Marble
Carborundum
Quick lime
A
Q.11: Which of the following is incorrect with respect to SI units?
Density in kg/m3
Force in Newton
Pressure in pascal
Amount of substance in mol/L
D
Q.12: Which of the following is correct?
1dm3= 103 cm3
1L =10 dm3
1dm3= 10 L
1L = lm3
A
Q.13: The relationship between pecometer (pm)find nanometer (nm)is?
1 pm = 10 nm
1 nm =10 pm
1 pm = 100 nm
1 nm = 100 pm
D
Q.14: The atmospheric pressure of one torr is equal to?
1cm of Hg
1 atm pressure
lm of Hg
(D} 1 mm of Hg
D
Q.15: Which of the following liquid mixture cannot be separated by simple distillation?
Benzene and toluene
Water and ethanol
Acetone and methanol
Ethanol and methanol
B
Q.16: The percentage of hydrogen water and hydrogen peroxide is 11.1 and 5.9 % respectively. These figures illustrate?
Avogadro’s law
Law of conservation of mass
Law of definite proportion
Law of multiple proportion
D
Q.17: The balancing of chemical equation is based on?
Avogadro’s law
Law of conservation of mass
Law of definite proportion
Law of multiple proportion
B
Q.18: Oxygen combines with two isotopes of carbon (C12 and C14)to form two samples of carbon dioxide. The data illustrates?
Law of reciprocal proportions
Law of conservation of mass
Law of definite proportion
None of these
D
Q.19: Which of the following pairs of compound illustrate law of multiple proportions?
C8OH, KOH
D2O and H2O
Benzene and ethane
KI and KC1
C
Q.20: The atomic mass of an element is?
The actual mass of one atom of the element
The average relative mass of different atoms of the element
Much different from the number of the element
The relative mass of an atom of the element
B
Q.21: The isotopes of chlorine with mass number 35 and 37 exist in the ratio of?
1:1
3:1
1:3
3:2
B
Q.22: The correct value of Avogadro’s number is?
6.02342 x 1021
6.024 x 1022
6.02252 x 1023
6.6230 x 10-34
C
Q.23: One mole of the nitrogen gas is the volume of?
One litre of nitrogen at STP
22.4 litres of nitrogen at STP
14 litres of nitrogen at STP
7 litres of nitrogen at STP
D
Q.24: Which of the following has maximum mass?
0.1 gram atom of nitrogen
0.1 mole of ammonia
6.022 x 1022 molecules of He gas
12 cm3 of carbon dioxide
D
Q.25: Total number of atoms present in 64g of SO2 is?
6.02 x 1022
6.02 x 1023
64 x 6.02 x 1023
64 x 6.02 x 1022
B
Q.26: The mass of One a.m.u is approximately?
1.0 g
2.0 g
1.66 x 1024 g
1.66 x 10-24 g
D
Q.27: Which of the following represents 1 gram molecule of a substance?
6.02 x I0 24 molecules of ammonia
4 gram of He
40 gram of CaO
127 gram of iodine
D
Q.28: Equal volumes of different gases at any definite temperature and pressure have?
Equal masses
Equal atoms
Equal molecules
Equal densities
C
Q.29: The equivalent mass of KMnO4 in acidic medium is (K = 39, Mn = 55, 0 = 16)?
158
15.8
31.6
3.16
C
Q.30: The weights of two elements which combine with one another are in the ratio of their?
Atomic mass
Molecular mass
Equivalent mole
Gram mole
C
Q.31: The number of moles of SO2 in 6.4 gram is?
0.1
0.2
0.01
0.02
A
Q.32: The empirical formula of oxalic acid is?
CHO
CH2O
CHO2
CH2O2
C
Q.33: A sample in the ionization chamber of mass spectrometer is ionized by?
Electrons
Protons
Neutrons
Nucleus
A
Q.34: Which of the following will form single peak in mass spectrograph?
Iodine
Arsenic
Fluorine
All of these
D
Q.35: Which one of the following contains maximum number of molecules?
16 gram methane
16 gram water
16 gram oxygen
16 gram sulphur dioxide
A
Q.36: Actual yield of a chemical reaction is always less than the theoretical yield because of?
Reversible reactions
Slid reactions
By product formation
All of these
D
Q.37: The number of peaks obtained in mass spectrometry shows?
Charge on isotopes
Mass of isotopes
Number of isotopes
Relative abundance of isotope
C
Q.38: Which of the following substances is used as CO2 absorber in combustion analysis?
Lime water
Dilute NaOH
50% KOH
Mg(OH)2
C
Q.39: Which of the following properties is always in whole numbers?
Atomic mass
Atomic radius
Atomic volume
Atomic number
D
Q.40: The technique used to separate insoluble particles from liquid is:?
Sublimation
Crystallization
Filtration
Solvent extraction
D
Q.41: The process controlled by distribution law is?
Sublimation
Crystallization
Filtration
Solvent extraction
D
Q.42: Mixture of NaCl and chloride is separated by?
Sublimation
Crystallization
Filtration
Solvent extraction
A
Q.43: Which of the following substance is used as decolorizing agent?
Silica gel
Animal charcoal
Asbestos
Sulphuric acid
B
Q.44: Which of the foilowing is not Used drying agent in desiccators?
NaCl solution
CaCl2
P2O5
Silica gel
A
Q.45: The separation of miscible liquids by heating due to difference in boiling points is called?
Vaporization
Distillation
Sublimation
Condensation
B
Q.46: The component which shows maximum affinity towards stationary state will have?
Large Rf value
Small Rf value
Intermediate Rf value
None of the above
B
Q.47: Which of the following is not locating reagent?
CS2
Rubeanic acid
H2S
Ninhydrin
A
Q.48: Safe and most reliable method of drying crystals is:?
Furnace
Desiccator
Oven
None of the above
B
Q.49: The most suitable locating reagent for amino acids on paper chromatography is?
Sulphuric acid
Rubeanic acid
H2S
Ninhydrin
A
Q.50: The solid which is left over the filter paper is called?
If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Nine "Reaction Kinetics" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Nine objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.
First Year Chemistry MCQs Unit 9 Reaction Kinetics Quiz Test
You will learn in this Chapter:
Rate of Reactions
Orders of reaction
Half-Life period
Determination of Rate of Chemical Reaction
Physical and Chemical methods
Energy of Activation
Finding order of reaction
Factors affecting the rate of reactions
Catalysis
Q.1: The activation energy of reaction?
Includes the average kinetic energy of the reactants
Is in addition to the average kinetic energy of the reactants
Is in addition to the average kinetic energy of the products
Required for effective collisions
D
Q.2: Ea appears as a potential energy hill between --------- for carrying out the reaction?
Among the reactants
Reactants and the products
Among the products
None of the above
B
Q.3: The slope of the curve between 1/T and log k gives?
Reaction rate
Both of the above
Specific rate constant
Activation energy
D
Q.4: The unit of the rate constant is the same as that of the rate of reaction in?
1st order reaction
Zero-order reaction
2nd order reaction
3rd order reaction
B
Q.5: Arrhenius equation can be used for evaluating?
Specific rate constant
Both of the above
Activation energy
Half-life period
C
Q.6: A catalyst can?
Accelerate the reaction rate
Retard the reaction rate
Chemically un-consumed at the end of the reaction
All of the above
D
Q.7: The 2nd order reaction becomes 1st when?
One of the reactants is limiting
One of the reactants is in large excess
None of the reactants is in large excess
One of the reactants is acidic
B
Q.8: Oxidation of SO2(g) in the presence of NO(g) catalyst is an example of?
Homogeneous catalysis
Autocatalysis
Heterogeneous catalysis
Negative catalysis
A
Q.9: Oxidation of SO2(g) in the presence of V2O5(s) is an example of?
Homogeneous catalysis
Autocatalysis
Heterogeneous catalysis
Negative catalysis
C
Q.10: Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a catalyst?
It is specific in its action
Provides the reactants a low activation energy barrier
Becomes chemically changed at the end of a reaction
It can be poisoned by an impurity which deactivates its catalytic capability
C
Q.11: The specific rate constant of a chemical reaction is the rate of the reaction when the concentration of the reactant is?
Less than unity
Greater than unity
Equal to unity
Equal to the concentration of 2nd order reaction
C
Q.12: The half life for a 1st order decomposition of a substance dissolved in CCl4 is 2.5 hours at 30°C. The amount of substance left after 10 hours if the initial weight of the substance is 160g?
5g
15g
10
20g
C
Q.13: An endothermic reaction A → B has an activation energy 15kcal /mol and the heat of reaction 5kcal/mol. The activation energy for the reaction B → A will be?
20kcal/mol
10kcal/mol
15kcal/mol
None of the above
B
Q.14: The rate of reaction is doubled for every 10°C rise in temperature. The increase in reaction rate as a result of temperature rise from 10°C to 100°C is?
112
400
512
614
C
Q.15: For the 1st order decomposition reaction 2N2O5 (g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g) the half-life is given as?
0.693/k
log2/k
0.693/2k
ln2/k
A
Q.16: Which one of the following is correct about the following reaction if the iron is not 100% pure?
2Fe + 3H2O + O2 → Fe2O3.3H2O?
Very fast reaction
Moderately reaction
Very slow reaction
Not predicted
C
Q.17: For a chemical reaction to occur?
The vessel shall be open
Reacting molecules should have less energy than Ea at the time of the collision
Reacting molecules must be properly oriented and energy more than or equal to Ea
The reacting molecules must not collide with each other
C
Q.18: The reaction that involves gases, its rate does not depend upon?
Catalyst
Partial pressure
Temperature
Moles dm-3
D
Q.19: The mathematical relation between the rate of reaction and the concentrations of the reactants is known as the?
Rate equation
Arrhenius equation
Rate low
Both a and c
C
Q.20: Which one affects the specific rate constant?
Temperature
Concentration of reactants
Catalyst
All of these
A
Q.21: Which one is a chemical method for the determination of the rate of reaction?
Spectrometry
Refractrometric method
Dilatometric method
Titration
D
Q.22: When the concentration of a reactant in the reaction is increased by 8 times, the rate increased only by 2 times. The order of the reaction is?
1
½
1/3
2
C
Q.23: The rate expression for a reaction A+B → products is rate = k [A]2/3 [B]-1/2 the order of reaction is?
0
5/2
3/2
1
D
Q.24: If 75% of any given amount of radioactive element disintegrates in 60 min. The half life of a radioactive element is.?
20 min
30 min
45 min
25 min
B
Q.25: The unit of rate constant depends on?
Number of reactants
Order of reaction
Concentration terms
Molecularity of reaction
B
Q.26: The unit of the rate constant of a second-order reaction is?
mol dm-3 sec-1
mol-2 dm+6
sec-1
mol-1 dm+3 sec-1
D
Q.27: The half-life period of the zero-order reaction is equal to?
0.693/K
1/Ka
a/2
1.5/Ka2
C
Q.28: The influence of temperature on the reaction rate is predicted by?
Free energy change of reaction
Arrhenius equation
Van der Waal’ equation
Kinetic equation
B
Q.29: If the energy of the activated complex lies close to the energy of reactants, it means that reaction is?
Slow
Endothermic
Exothermic
Exothermic and fast
D
Q.30: Which of the following statements regarding a catalyst is not true?
A catalyst does not alter the equilibrium in a reversible reaction
A catalyst can initiate the reaction which is not thermodynamically favorable
Catalytic reactions are very specific
A catalyst remains unchanged in composition and quantity
If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Eight "Electrochemistry" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Eight objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.
First Year Chemistry Chapter Eight Electrochemistry Notes
You will learn in this Chapter:
Oxidation State and Balancing of Redox Equations
Electrolytic Conduction
Electrolytic Cells
Voltaic and Galvanic Cells
Electrode Potential
Electrochemical Series
Rechargeable Batteries
Non-Rechargeable Batteries
Q.1: Magnesium metal is extracted by the electrolysis of its?
A concentrated aqueous solution of its chloride
Dilute aqueous solution on of its chloride
Its fused chloride
Any solution
C
Q.2: Iron can be prevented from rusting by?
Connecting iron to more electropositive metal, a case of cathodic protection
Connecting iron to more electropositive metal, a case of anodic protection
Connecting iron to less electropositive metal, a case of anodic protection
Connecting iron to less electropositive metal, a case of cathodic protection
B
Q.3: Standard hydrogen electrode has an arbitrarily fixed potential of?
0 V
0.1 V
1.0 V
0.001 V
A
Q.4: The correct order of equivalent conductance at infinite dilution among LiCl, NaCl, and KCl is?
LiCl > NaCl > KCl
NaCl > KCl > LiCl
KCl > NaCl > LiCl
LiCl > KCl > NaCl
C
Q.5: Electrochemical series is useful in?
Prediction of the feasibility of a chemical reaction
Calculation of voltage
Comparison of the relative tendencies of the metals and non-metals to get oxidized or reduced
All of the above
D
Q.6: A normal aluminum electrode coupled with a normal hydrogen electrode gives an emf of 1.66 volts and deflection of the needle towards Hydrogen. The standard electrode potential of aluminum is?
-1.66 V
-0.83 V
+1.66 V
+0.83 V
A
Q.7: If the sum of Eo values of the two half cells is negative, then?
The reaction will be feasible
The reaction may or may not be feasible
The reaction will not be feasible
No prediction can be made
C
Q.8: Which of the following cell can convert chemical energy directly into electrical energy?
Mercury cell
Lead storage battery
Daniel cell
Fuel cell
D
Q.9: In a galvanic cell, the electrode occupying a lower position in the electrochemical series?
Will act as a cathode
The reduction will take place on it
Oxidation will take place on it
Both a and b
D
Q.10: Which of the following statement is true about galvanic cell?
The anode is positively charged
The cathode is positively charged
Reduction occurs at the anode
Reduction occurs at the cathode
D
Q.11: Greater the value of the standard reduction potential of the given species?
Greater is its tendency to accept electrons to undergo reduction
Greater is its tendency to accept electrons to undergo oxidation
Greater is its tendency to lose electrons to undergo reduction
Greater is its tendency to lose electrons to undergo oxidation
A
Q.12: Coinage metals have the least reactivity because they have?
Positive oxidation potentials
Zero oxidation potentials
Positive reduction potentials
Zero reduction potentials
C
Q.13: Which of the following is a secondary cell?
Dry cell
Ni-Cd cell
Mercury cell
Alkali cell
B
Q.14: Four metals A, B, C, and D are having standard electrode potential as -3.05, -1.66, -0.4, and 0.8V respectively. Which one will be the best reducing agent?
A
B
C
D
A
Q.15: The oxidation potential of Mg and Al are +2.37 and 1.66V, respectively. The Mg is a chemical reaction?
Will be replaced by Al
Won’t be able to replace Al
Will replace Al
None of the above
C
Q.16: Which can replace hydrogen from dilute acids?
Au
Zn
Pt
None of these
B
Q.17: The oxidation state of carbon-atom in glucose is?
+4
+6
-4
None of these
D
Q.18: The cell in which electrical energy is converted into chemical energy is?
Galvanic cell
Electrolytic cell
Voltaic cell
All of these
B
Q.19: The ability of elements to act as reducing agent --------- down to electrochemical series.?
Increases
Remain constant
Decreases
Depends upon the reaction conditions
C
Q.20: If a strip of Cu-metals is placed in a solution of FeSO4 then?
Cu will be deposited
Cu and Fe both dissolve
Fe is precipitated
No reaction occur
D
Q.21: “Al” metal is extracted from its -------- during electrolysis.?
Chlorides
Cryolite
Oxides
All of these
C
Q.22: Halogens are placed at the lower level of electrochemical series, this indicates that?
Halogens are good reducing agents
Halogens are an oxidizing agent but bad reducing agents
Halogens are good oxidizing agent as well as good reducing agents
All the above statements are correct
B
Q.23: The electrolysis product of molten NaCl at electrodes?
Na and Cl2
Na and NaOH
H2 and Cl2
H2, Cl2, and NaOH
A
Q.24: SHE acts as an anode when connected with Cu electrode but cathode with Zn electrode because?
Zn has less reduction potential than hydrogen and Cu more
Zn has less oxidizing potential than hydrogen and Cu more
Zn is above in electrochemical series than hydrogen and Cu below
All the above are possible reasons
A
Q.25: When an element is in contact with 1M aqueous solution of its own ions, at 298K then the potential is called?
Standard reduction potential
Reduction potential
Standard electrode potential
Both a and c
D
Q.26: Gold and silver are the least reactive due to?
Positive oxidation potential
Zero oxidation potential
Positive reduction potential
Having a large negative electrode potential
C
Q.27: During the electrolysis of aqueous KNO3, H2 is produced at cathode instead of potassium due to?
The reduction potential of K is greater than hydrogen
Hydrogen is more reactive than potassium
The reduction potential of potassium is less than hydrogen
All of the above are possible reasons
C
Q.28: Which of the following statement is correct?
Zn can replace Cu2+ in CuSO4
Cu can replace H+ in H2SO4
Cu can replace Zn2+ in ZnSO4
None of these
A
Q.29: In a reaction Zn + HNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + NO + H2O?
Zn is reduced
N is oxidized
N is reduced
Hydrogen is reduced
C
Q.30: Which one metal shows the maximum oxidation state?
If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Seven "Solutions" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Seven objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.
First Year Chemistry Chapter Seven Notes
You will learn in this Chapter:
Concentration Units of Solution
Types of Solution
Raoult’s Law
Vapour Pressure of Liquid-Liquid Solutions
Solubility and Solubility Curves
Colligative Properties of Solutions
Energetic of Solution
Hydration and Hydrolysis
Q.1: 10g NaOH is dissolved in 1000g water. The molality of NaOH is?
1m
0.5m
4m
0.25m
D
Q.2: 250cm3 of 0.2 molar potassium sulphate solution is mixed with 250cm3 of 0.2 molar KCl solution. The molar concentration of K+ ions is?
0.2 molar
0.3 molar
0.25 molar
0.35 molar
B
Q.3: The molality of pure water is?
1
55.5
18
6
B
Q.4: Molal boiling point constant is the ratio of the elevation in the boiling to?
Molarity
Mole fraction of solvent
Molality
Mole fraction of the solute
C
Q.5: The number of molecules of sugar in 1dm3 of 1M sugar solution is?
6.02 x 1023
3.42 x 6.02 x 1022
6.02 x 1020
None of the above
A
Q.6: Colligative properties can be used for calculating?
The density of a compound
The lattice energy of a compound
The molecular mass of a compound
All of the above
C
Q.7: 18g glucose is dissolved in 90g water. The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to?
1/5
1/51
5.1
1/55.5
B
Q.8: A solution has 92g ethanol, 96g methanol, and 90g water. Mole fraction of water in the solution is?
0.1
0.4
0.2
0.5
D
Q.9: Elevation of boiling point can be best studied by?
Beckmann’s method
Landsberger’s method
Gibb’s method
None of the above
B
Q.10: For observing Colligative properties, which of the following conditions should be fulfilled?
The solution should be dilute
Solute should be non-electrolyte
Solute should be non-volatile
All of the above
D
Q.11: When the solvent is containing non-volatile solute particles, then?
Vapor pressure is decreased
Vapor pressure doesn’t change
Vapor pressure is elevated
Volume is decrease
A
Q.12: The freezing point is the temperature of the substance at which its solid and liquid phases have the?
Different vapor pressure
Same volume
Same vapor pressure
Same density
C
Q.12: A solution of glucose is 10%. The volume in which 1g mole of it will be dissolved is?
1 dm3
200 dm3
1.8 dm3
180 dm3
C
Q.13: Which of the following is not a colligative property?
Density
Elevation of boiling point
Depression in freezing point
Osmotic pressure
A
Q.14: The substances which don’t dissolve in a reasonable amount in a particular solvent are-----.?
Miscible
Well soluble
Sparingly soluble
Insoluble
C
Q.15: Which one of the following solution of glucose in water is more dilute?
0.1 molar
0.1 molal
1% w/w
All have the same concentration
B
Q.15: Which liquid solute is dissolved in the liquid solvent, then the best unit of concentration is?
% w/w
% w/v
% v/v
% v/w
C
Q.16: Which of the following is an example of solid in solid solution?
Dust particles in smoke
Opals
Mercury metal in silver metal
All of the above
B
Q.17: A colligative property is not represented by?
Elevation of boiling point
Osmotic pressure
Freezing point
Relative lowering of vapor pressure
C
Q.18: A solution of KCl in water contains?
Free formula units
Free ions
Free atoms
Free molecules
B
Q.19: For very dilute solution the following expression is used?
Gram per million
Nanogram per million
Microgram per million
Parts per million
D
Q.20: That solution which possesses a maximum concentration of solute at a given temperature is known as?
Unsaturated
Saturated
Supersaturated
Dilute solution
B
Q.21: Which of the following 0.1 m solution will have the lowest freezing point?
K2SO4
NaCl
Glucose
Urea
A
Q.22: Which has the highest freezing point?
1.0 m NaCl
1.0 m CaCl2
1.0 m Urea
1.0 m KCl
C
Q.23: Which of the following statement is true about ideal solutions?
The change in volume is zero
The change in enthalpy is zero
The vapor pressure change is zero
Both a and b
D
Q.24: The addition of sodium chloride to water, while boiling eggs results to?
Decrease boiling point of water
Increase the boiling point of water
Prevent breaking of eggs
Make egg tasty
B
Q.25: Which pair of the following will not form an ideal solution?
C2H5Br + C2H5I
H2O + C4H9OH
C6H14 + C7H16
CCl4 + SiCl4
B
Q.26: The study of elevation of boiling point is called?
Ebullioscopy
Cryoscopy
Osmometer
None of these
A
Q.27: A solution of glucose is 10% w/v. The volume in which 1g mole of it is dissolved will be?
1dm3
200 cm3
900 cm3
1.8 dm3
D
Q.28: The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to?
If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Six "Chemical Equilibrium" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Six objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.
First Year Chemistry Chemical Equilibrium MCQs
You will learn in this Chapter:
Reversible and Irreversible Reactions
State of Chemical Equilibrium
Law of mass action
Equilibrium Constants
Applications of Equilibrium Constants
Le-Chatilier’s Principle
Applications of Chemical Equilibrium in Industry
Ionic Product of Water
Ionization Constants of Acids/Base
Lowry Bronsted Acid-Base Concept
Common Ion Effect
Buffer Solution
Buffer Capacity
Solubility Product
Q.1: What will be the pH of 1.0 mol dm-3 of H2X, which is only 50% dissociated??
1
0
2
Less than 0
B
Q.2: What will be the pH of 1.0 mol dm-3 of NH4OH, which is 1% dissociated??
2
12
0
2.7
B
Q.3: Buffer solutions are used in except??
Clinical analysis
Nutrition
Soil science
Qualitative analysis
D
Q.4: Buffer action can be explained by except??
Common ion effect
Le-Chatelier’s principle
Law of mass action
Solubility product
D
Q.5: At equilibrium, the concentration of reactants and products are?
Constant
Maximum
Different
Equal
A
Q.6: In the reaction A2(g) + 4B2(g) ⇌ 2AB4(g) such that ΔH < 0;the formation of AB4(g)will be favoured at?
Low temperature and high pressure
High temperature and low pressure
Low temperature and low pressure
High temperature and high pressure
A
Q.7: Consider the reaction PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) +Cl2 in a closed container at equilibrium. At a fixed temperature, what will be the effect of adding more PCl5 on the equilibrium constant??
It increases
It remains unaffected
It decreases
Can’t be predicted without KP
B
Q.8: The oxidation of SO2 to SO3 is an exothermic reaction. The yield of SO3 will be maximum if?
Temperature is increased and pressure is kept constant
Temperature is reduced and pressure is increased
Both temperature and pressure are increased
Both temperature and pressure are decreased
B
Q.9: If the concentration of salt is greater than the acid in buffer solution, then the??
pH = pKa
pH = pKb
pH > pKa
pH > pKb
A
Q.10: In a saturated solution of AgCl, the molar concentration of Ag+ and Cl– is 1.0 x 10-5 M each. What is the value of Ksp??
1.0 x 10-5
0.1 x 10-5
1.0 x 10-15
1.0 x 10-10
D
Q.11: The solubility of Fe(OH)3 is x molar per dm3. Its Ksp would be?
9x3
27x4
3x4
9x4
B
Q.12: For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g). The equilibrium constant changes with?
Total pressure
The concentration of H2 and I2
Catalyst
Temperature
D
Q.13: The decomposition of N2O4 to NO2 is carried out at 280°C in chloroform. When equilibrium is reached, 0.2 moles of N2O4 and 0.02 mole of NO2 are present in 1:1 ratio. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2O4 →2NO2 is------.?
0.01
0.001
0.02
0.002
D
Q.14: In a given system, water and ice are in equilibrium, if the pressure is applied to the above system then?
More ice is formed
The amount of ice and water will remain the same
More ice is melted
Both a and b
C
Q.15: The solubility product of AgCl is 2.0 x 10-10 mol2dm-6. The maximum concentration of Ag+ ions in the solution is?
1.41 x 10-5 mol2 dm-6
1.41 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6
2.0 x 10-10 mol2 dm-6
4.0 x 10-20 mol2 dm-6
A
Q.16: An excess of silver nitrate is added to the aqueous barium chloride and the precipitate is removed by filtration. What are the main ions in the filtrate??
Ag+ and NO–3 only
NO–3 and Ba+2 only
Ag+ and NO–3 and Ba+2 only
Cl– and NO–3 and Ba+2 only
C
Q.17: The pH of 10-4 mole dm-3of HCl?
2
4
3
5
B
Q.18: The most suitable temperature for preparing ammonia gas is?
250°C
450°C
350°C
550°C
B
Q.19: The Kw of water at 25°C is given by?
10-7
10-10
10-12
10-14
D
Q.20: When HCl gas is passed through the saturated solution of rock salt, the solubility of NaCl?
Increases
May increases or decreases
Decreases
None of these
C
Q.21: For what value of Kc almost forward reaction is complete??
Kc = 10-30
Kc = 1
Kc = 1030
Kc = 0
C
Q.22: In which of the following Equilibria will Kc and Kp have not the same value??
2HI ⇌ H2 + I2
2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3
N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO
All of these
B
Q.23: If the temperature is increased of the following reaction, then will go in
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 ∆H = -Ve?
Forward direction
Remain constant
Reverse direction
Cannot be predicted
C
Q.24: The pH of an aqueous solution is 3.0 at 25°C. The hydrogen ion concentration in the solution would be?
0.001
0.01
0.0001
10-5
A
Q.25: Which one is very weak acid??
HF
H2CO3
HCl
H2O
D
Q.26: Which one increases by common ion effect except??
Crystallization
Solubility
Association of ions
All of these
B
Q.27: A basic buffer solution can be prepared by mixing?
Strong acid and it is a salt with a weak base
Strong base and it is a salt with weak acid
Weak base and it is a salt with a strong acid
Weak acid and it is a salt with strong base
C
Q.28: Which one is the best buffer those have?
pH = pKa
pH > pKa
pOH < pKb
pKa = 0
A
Q.29: The pH of an ideal buffer is?
10
7
Less than 7
0
B
Q.30: If the ionic product is equal to Ksp then the solution is?
If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Five "Thermochemistry" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Five objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.
1st Year Chemistry MCQs Thermochemistry Quiz Test
You will learn in this Chapter:
Spontaneous and non-spontaneous reaction
System, Surrounding and State Function
Internal Energy
1st law of Thermodynamics
Enthalpy of a reaction
Measurement of Enthalpy
Hess’s Law
Born-Haber Cycle
Q.1: Enthalpy of neutralization of strong acids and strong bases have the same values because?
Neutralization leads to the formation of salt and water
Strong acids and bases are ionic substances
Acids always give rise to H+ and bases always furnish OH-1 ions
The net change involves the combination of H+ and OH-1 ions form water
D
Q.2: For an endothermic reaction, enthalpy of reactants?
Is smaller than that of the products
Is greater than that of the products
Is equal to that of the products
Must be greater or smaller than that of the products
A
Q.3: Which of the following has a positive value of enthalpy?
Neutralization
Atomization
Combustion
All of the above
B
Q.4: The net heat change in the chemical reaction is the same whether it is brought about in two or more different ways in one or several steps. It is known as?
Henry’s law
Hess’s law
Joule’s principal
Law of conservation of energy
B
Q.5: Hess’s law is analogous to?
Law of heat summation
Law of increasing entropy
Law of heat exchange
1st law of thermodynamics
A
Q.6: NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
Enthalpy change in the above reaction is called?
Enthalpy of reaction
Enthalpy of neutralization
Enthalpy of formation
Enthalpy of combustion
B
Q.7: A hypothetical reaction X → 2Yproceeds by the following sequence of steps:
1/2X → Z ∆H = q1
Z → 2W ∆H = q2
W → 1/2Y ∆H = q3
The values for the ∆H of the reaction is?
q1 + q2 + q3
2(q1 + q2 + q3)
2q1 + 2q2 + 3q3
2(q1 + q2 + q3)
C
Q.8: Calories are equivalent to?
0.4184 J
40.18 J
4.184 J
418.4 J
C
Q.9: The values of ∆H for the process I(g) + e-1 → I-1(g) is?
> 0
0
< 0
None of the above
C
Q.10: The enthalpy of formation of a compound is?
Positive
Either positive or negative
Negative
None of the above
B
Q.11: What is correct about the heat of combustion?
It is positive in some cases while negative in other
It is applicable to gaseous substances only
It is always negative
It is always positive
C
Q.12: What is not correct about ∆Hf??
Its value gives an idea about the relative stability of reactants and the products
It is always negative
Values depend upon the nature of bonds
Its value can be greater or less than zero
B
Q.13: If an endothermic reaction is allowed to take place very rapidly in air, the temperature of the surrounding air will??
Remains constant
Decrease
Increase
Either increase or decrease
D
Q.14: When a solid melts, there is?
Increase in entropy
The decrease in internal energy
Increase in enthalpy
Both a and b
D
Q.15: The heat of reaction depends upon?
The temperature of the reactants
Physical states of the reactants and the products
Both a and b
Path of the reaction and the temperature
B
Q.16: The exothermic process is?
Evaporation
Respiration
Sublimation
Boiling
B
Q.17: During an exothermic or endothermic reaction which one of the following formulae is used to calculate the amount of heat evolved or absorbed-----?
∆H = ∆E + PV
∆p = ∆H
∆E = q + w
q = m x s x ∆T
D
Q.18: Most of the reactions which give stable products are?
Endothermic
Isothermal
Exothermic
None of these
C
Q.19: The measurement of enthalpy change at standard conditions means that we should manage the measurement that------?
24°C at 1 atm
0°C at 1 atm
25°C at 1 atm
100°C 1 at atm
B
Q.20: The total heat content of a system is called-------?
Internal energy
Enthalpy
Entropy
All of these
B
Q.21: The enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are?
Unity
Always +ve
Always –ve
Zero
D
Q.22: A state function which describes together the internal energy and product of pressure and volume is called-------?
Enthalpy
Internal energy
Work
Kinetic energy
A
Q.23: The enthalpy change for the reaction C2H2 + 5/2 O2 → 2CO2 + H2O is brown as enthalpy of?
Formation of CO2
Combustion of C2H2
Fusion of C2H2
Vaporization of C2H2
B
Q.24: The value of ∆V is very small. The term P∆V can be neglected for the process involving?
Liquid and gas
Liquid and solid
Solid and gases
None of these
B
Q.25: The lattice energy of NaCl is?
787 J/mole
780 kJ/mol
790 kJ/mol
-787 kJ/mole
D
Q.26: Decomposition of H2O is?
Endothermic reaction
Exothermic reaction
Nuclear reaction
Zero nuclear reaction
A
Q.27: According to Hess’s Law, the enthalpy change for a reaction?
Depends on path
The sum of ∆E and ∆H
Independent of the path
None of these
C
Q.28: Enthalpy of formation of one mole of an ionic compound from gaseous ion under standard condition is called------?
Gibb’s energy
Lattice energy
Bond energy
All of these
B
Q.29: Choose from the following the correct statement about Born Harbor cycle?
Born Harbor cycle is different from Hess’s law
The energy changes in a cyclic process is not zero
The lattice energy of crystalline substances can be calculated easily
None of these
C
Q.30: Change in enthalpy of ∆H a system can be calculated by the following relationship?
If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Four "Chemical Bonding" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Four objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.
First Year Chemistry Chemical Bounding MCQs Quiz Test
You will learn in this Chapter:
Chemical Bond
Atomic Sizes
Ionization Energy, Electron Affinity and Electronegativity
Lewis Concept
Theories of Covalent Bond
Atomic Orbit Hybridization
Molecular Orbit Theory
Bond Energy, Bond length and Dipole Moment
Q.1: Oxy-acids of halogens has the co-ordinate covalent bond between?
Hydrogen and oxygen
Hydrogen and hydrogen
Halogens and oxygen
Oxygen and oxygen
C
Q.2: Which of the following has a perfect triangular structure?
CO2
NO
PH3
SO3
D
Q.3: Limitation of valance bond theory (VBT) is that?
It doesn’t address the shapes of the molecules
It doesn’t involve the criteria of bond formation
It doesn’t involve the concept of valency
None of the above
A
Q.4: End to end overlapping of orbitals give rise to the formation of?
Sigma bond
Metallic bond
Pi bond
Coordinate covalent bond
A
Q.5: Side by side overlapping of orbitals gives rise to the formation of?
Sigma bond
Metallic bond
Pi bond
Ionic bond
C
Q.6: In sp3 hybridized orbital, the s character is?
25%
75%
50%
100%
A
Q.7: Dipole moment gives the information about?
% ionic character
The geometry of the molecules
Bond angles
All of the above
D
Q.8: Bonding affects properties like?
Solubility
Reaction kinetics
Melting, boiling points, and isomerism
All of these
D
Q.9: In sp2 hybridized orbital, the s character is-------.?
11.11%
33.33%
22.22%
44.44%
B
Q.10: An ionic compound A+B– is most likely to form when?
The ionization energy of A is high and electron affinity of B is low
The ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of B is high
Both the ionization energy and the electron affinity of A and B are high
Both the ionization energy and the electron affinity of A and B are low
B
Q.11: The bond order of nitrogen molecule and neon?
2 and 1
3 and 0
0 and 3
2 and 0
B
Q.12: Which of the following blocks will have comparatively higher electron affinity??
s block
f block
p block
d block
C
Q.13: Which one of the following has the maximum number of sp2 carbon atoms?
Benzene
Methane
CCl4
Ethene
A
Q.14: The process in which the orbitals of different energies and shape mix with each other to give equivalent hybrid orbitals is called?
Dissolution
Hybridization
Resonance
Ionization
B
Q.15: The structure of water is?
Trigonal
Angular
Linear
Tetragonal
B
Q.16: In a crystal, cations and anions are held together by?
Sharing of electrons
Nuclear forces
Electrostatic forces
Electrons
C
Q.17: Ionic compounds are obtained by the combination of groups?
3 and 5
1 and 7
2 and 5
4 and 8
B
Q.18: In a double bond connecting 2 atoms, there is a sharing of?
1 electron
2 electrons
3 electrons
two-electron pairs
D
Q.19: F2 molecule is formed by the overlap of?
s-s orbital
s-p orbital
p-p head-on overlapping of orbitals
p-p parallel overlapping of orbitals
C
Q.20: Which of the following compounds has a non-directional bond??
BF3
KBr
Mg CO3
NF3
B
Q.21: The structure of CrO-24 is?
Tetrahedral
Octahedral
Cubic
Triclinic
A
Q.22: Number of electrons shared in SF6 molecule is-------.?
4
6
8
12
D
Q.23: The following molecules has a linear structure except??
CS2
SO2
CO2
BeCl2
B
Q.24: Which of the following species has lone pair of electrons on the central atom??
CH4
NH+4
PCl5
PCl3
D
Q.25: The shape of H3O+ is?
Tetrahedral
Angular
Pyramidal
Trigonal planar
C
Q.26: Which pair has trigonal planar geometry??
NH3, PH3
H2O, C2H2
BF3, AlH3
CO2, SO2
C
Q.27: Which of the following statements is not correct??
The double bond is stronger than the single bond
σ bond is stronger than π bond
The triple bond is shorter than a double bond
σ bond is weaker than π bond
D
Q.28: A molecule in which the distance between two carbon atom is largest is---------.?
Ethane
Ethene
Ethyne
Benzene
A
Q.29: All the metals shine when they are freshly cut. The reason is?
The conductivity of the metal is increased
The process of cutting gives energy to the metal atoms
The electron becomes less delocalized according to valance bond theory
The electrons are excited at higher energy levels and emit the photons when they fall back
D
Q.30: Total number of valance electrons of a nitrogen atom in an ammonium ion is?