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PPSC Senior Medical Officer Past Papers Solved MCQs Quiz

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 The Punjab Public Service Commission (PPSC) has issued Senior Medical Officer job vacancies on the contract mode for 03 years by the Specialized Healthcare & Medical Education Department. As per the notification, 02 posts are available on Open Merit. Those applying for this recruitment process should be well aware of the MBBS subjects since the written test will contain 100% MBBS related MCQs. If you are preparing for this job, EasyMCQs.com offers you the most comprehensive PPSC Senior Medical Officer solved MCQs, quizzes, past papers questions, and notes.

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The eligibility criteria given in the announcement state that candidates must hold MBBS along with Post Graduation in Emergency Medicine, General Medicine, General Surgery, Orthopedic, or Cardiology, PMC/PMDC Registration Certificate and a minimum of four years of post-qualification work experience in the concerned subject. Males, females, and transgenders who satisfy the age and domicile limits set by the government may apply. The posting area will be the headquarters, and candidates from anywhere in Punjab province can apply.

Q.1: Which of the following findings would alert you as an EMT to suspect early hemorrhage in a 5 year old child?
  1. Drooling of Bright red secretions
  2. Pulse rate of 95 bpm
  3. Vomiting of 25 ml of dark brown emesis
  4. All of the above
D
Q.2: A truck travels at the rate of 80 km per hour. How much distance it travel in 30 minute?
  1. 40 km
  2. 45 km
  3. 115 km
  4. 160 km
A
Q.3: A bag contains 2 yellow, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is blue?
  1. 9/20
  2. 7/9
  3. 10/21
  4. 7/11
C
Q.4: PERRL is a term used in relation to what part of the body?
  1. Arms
  2. Eyes
  3. Legs
  4. Mouth
B
Q.5: Which one drug is used topically for genital herpes infection?
  1. Fusidic Cream
  2. Acyclovir
  3. Nitonavir
  4. Amantadine
B
Q.6: The normal Respiration range for a healthy adult should be between --------breaths per min.
  1. 30-60
  2. 12-20
  3. 18-30
  4. None of these
D
Q.7: A Patient with profuse sweating is said to be?
  1. Hypothermic
  2. Diaphoretic
  3. Diabetic
  4. Pre-Eclampsia
B
Q.8: The muscle part of the heart is called:
  1. Pericardium
  2. Endocardium
  3. Myocardium
  4. Epicardium
C
Q.9: An infant develops Jaundice 6 hours after birth. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Haemolytic disease of the newborn
  2. Physiological Jaundice
  3. Umbilical Sepsis
  4. Atresia of the bile ducts
A
Q.10: Without oxygen brain damage is likely after --------mins.
  1. 10-07
  2. 06-07
  3. 04-05
  4. 02-04
B
Q.11: The largest blood vessel in the body is the:
  1. Aorta
  2. Inferior Vena Cava
  3. Pulmonary Vein
  4. None of the above
A
Q.12: The appendix is situated in the:
  1. Left Lower Quadrant
  2. Right Upper Quadrant
  3. Right lower Quadrant
  4. Left Upper Quadrant
C
Q.13: When assessing for the pain is a toddler, which of the following methods would be the most appropriate?
  1. Use a numeric Pain scale
  2. Observe the child for restlessness
  3. Ask the child about the pain
  4. Assess for changes in vital signs
B
Q.14: Excessive cooling of a burn could result in which of the following?
  1. Warts
  2. Hyperthermia
  3. Hypothermia
  4. Infection
C
Q.15: A bacterial disease is to:
  1. Laprosy
  2. Chicken Pox
  3. Influenza
  4. Polio
A
Q.16: Immune deficiency syndrome could develop due to:
  1. Defective Liver
  2. Aids Virus
  3. Defective thymus
  4. Weak immune system
B
Q.17: Fatty change in the liver is due to the accumulation of:
  1. Triglycerides
  2. Cholesterol
  3. LDL
  4. VLDL
A
Q.18: Which is the more concerning for non-accidental injury in children?
  1. Rib fracture in a two months old baby who climbed out to his cot
  2. Femoral fracture in a ten year old involved in a road traffic accident
  3. Rib fracture in a teenager playing rugby
  4. Tibia fracture in an 8 year old playing football
A
Q.19: As an EMT correct dose of Asprin to administer to a 65 year old patient with chest pain is:
  1. 150 mg
  2. 300 mg
  3. 600 mg
  4. 75 mg
B
Q.20: You should assume that all unresponsive trauma patients have a:
  1. Gag Reflex
  2. Head Injury
  3. Spinal Injury
  4. Internal Injury
C
Q.21: Morphine toxicity can cause:
  1. Diarrhea
  2. Mydriasis
  3. Respiratory Depression
  4. All of the Above
D
Q.22: Metronidazol is prescribed for:
  1. Aerobic Infection
  2. Fungi Infection
  3. Viral Infection
  4. None of these
D
Q.23: The correct point of checking an infant’s pulse is:
  1. Femoral
  2. Radial
  3. Carotid
  4. Brachial
C
Q.24: What is first step in any type of patient assessment?
  1. Check for Breathing
  2. Scene Safety
  3. Open Airway
  4. Check Pulse
B
Q.25: What does BSI stands for:
  1. Basic Safety Information
  2. Body Substance Isolation
  3. Body Substance Infection
  4. Basic Scene Information
B
Q.26: The Phalanges are located in the:
  1. Hand
  2. Ear
  3. Shoulder
  4. None of these
A
Q.27: A pulse oximeter is used to:
  1. Measure the pulse rate and white blood cells
  2. Measure the pulse rate and oxygen in the blood.
  3. Measure the pulse rate and amount of certain amount in blood
  4. None of these
B
Q.28: Which of the following is true for Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation(CPR)?
  1. A condition characterized by irregular rapid, jerky, movements, usually affecting the face, limbs and trunk.
  2. A condition in which multiple noncancerous tremors called chaondromas, arise in the bones, most commonly the bones the hands and feet
  3. A Character drug that is used to treat certain types of cancer.
  4. None of these
D
Q.29: Cough is common side effect of:
  1. At receptors Antagonist
  2. Ace inhibitors
  3. Both A & B
  4. None of these
B
Q.30: Which of the following drug specifically inhibits uric acid synthesis?
  1. Allopunnol
  2. Celecoxib
  3. Asprine
  4. Probenecid
A
Q.31: Among the following, all are anti fungi except:
  1. Ketoconazole
  2. Amantadine
  3. Fluconazole
  4. Miconazole
B
Q.32: Ketamine is used in dislocation of shoulder to:
  1. Reduce pain
  2. Reduce muscle tone
  3. Reduce heart rate
  4. None of these
D
Q.33: Drugs which inhibits absorption of Cholesterol in the body is:
  1. Nicotinic Acid
  2. Ezetimibe
  3. Lovestatin
  4. None of these
B
Q.34: Which of the following is an important component for any bone related to implant?
  1. Titanium
  2. Calcium and phosphorus
  3. Iron
  4. Calcium Hudroxyapatite
B
Q.35: Arriving first to the scene, you find an unresponsive person with no pulse that has thrown up. You fee CPR is not something you are comfortable giving them. What would be the next best thing for you to do?
  1. Wipe off the face or cover with shirt
  2. Compression only CPR
  3. Go and get help
  4. Do not initiate resuscitation
B
Q.36: Where would a person having a heart attack most likely feel pain?
  1. All of the above
  2. Abdomen
  3. In Chest
  4. In Legs
C
Q.37: Critical incident stress debriefing is usually held within --------hours.
  1. 98
  2. 120
  3. 100
  4. None of these
D
Q.38: How many lobes have both lungs?
  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7
B
Q.39: Cause of anaphylaxis shock is:
  1. Spider’s Bite
  2. Stroke
  3. Choking
  4. None of these
D
Q.40: The drug of choice for treating a newborn with presumed ductal-dependent cyanotic congenital heart disease is:
  1. Dobutamine
  2. Indomethacin
  3. Prostaglandin E1
  4. Morphine
C
Q.41: Which of the following drugs are proton pump inhibitors?
  1. Omoprozole
  2. Carpazapines
  3. Sabutamol
  4. None of these
A
Q.42: You highly suspect that your assigned client has abdominal sustention. You most need to do and chat which of the following things:
  1. Have another nurse verify your soupspoons.
  2. Measure Abdominal girth at the most distended level
  3. Measure the abdominal girth at the Umbilical.
  4. None of these
B
Q.43: What is the lower position of a heart called:
  1. Apex
  2. Base
  3. Down Position
  4. None of these
D
Q.44: Which medical condition will develop from severe blood loss?
  1. Anaphylaxis
  2. Grunting
  3. Shock
  4. Hypthermia
C
Q.45: The most concerning physical finding in an infant with an acute respiratory  infection or RAD execration is:
  1. Tachypnea
  2. Hypoglycemia
  3. Abdominal Breathing
  4. Hypothermia
A
Q.46: Where should you place the  AED pads when treating as infant for cardiac arrest?
  1. Chest and Back
  2. Do not use AED on an infant
  3. Upper Chest and Mid Abdomen
  4. Response Wherever they fit.
A
Q.47: The severity of a ligament injury progresses from:
  1. Sprain to strain
  2. Sprain to tear
  3. Strain to tear
  4. Strain to sprain
B
Q.48: All of the following are consistent with the diagnosis of bacterial trachetis Except:
  1. Strider
  2. Preceding viral URI
  3. High Fever
  4. Minimal Sputum production
B
Q.49: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 2 month old infant with a 10 day history of mild cough, who is in no distress in the ED and has a normal physical examination.
  1. Viral bronchiolitis
  2. Congenital Airway Anomaly
  3. FB ingestion
  4. Bacterial pneumonia
B
Q.50: How does an  automatic external defibrillator (AED) help a person who is in cardiac arrest?
  1. An AED restores normal heart rhythm
  2. An AED pumps blood
  3. An AED shocks the brain
  4. An AED helps the victim breathe
A
Q.51: A person who suffers a traumatic rather than planned amputation has:
  1. No risk of Infection
  2. A greater risk of infection
  3. No need for post operative analgesia
  4. An increased need for oxygen
B
Q.52: After finding an unresponsive child, yelling for help, and confirming the child is not breathing what would be your next course of action?
  1. Deliver 30 Chest Compression
  2. Deliver Rescue breaths as most cardiac
  3. Leave the child and search for an AED
  4. Begin back blows and chest thrusts
A
Q.53: How does CPR help when a person goes into cardiac arrest?
  1. It helps blood flow to the brain
  2. It stats the heart beating again
  3. It helps the blood flow to the heart
  4. B & C
A
Q.54: Which disease causes difficulty in breathing?
  1. Asthma
  2. Autism
  3. Astig
  4. Anemia
A
Q.55: بلڈ پریشر زیادہ ہونے کا کیا کہا جاتا ہے؟
  1. ہائپو ٹینشن
  2. ہائپو گلیسیمیا
  3. ہا ہپر ٹینشن
  4. ان میں سے کوئی نہیں
C
Q.56: How many bones in a human body?
  1. 206
  2. 208
  3. 210
  4. 212
A
Q.57: The respiratory system of an Insect consist of :
  1. Lungs
  2. Esophagus
  3. Trachea
  4. None of these
C
Q.58: How many bones are there in human body?
  1. 206
  2. 300
  3. 306
  4. 250
A
Q.59: Anemia is:
  1. Bloodlessness
  2. Brain Disease
  3. Respiratory Disease
  4. Nervous Disease
A
Q.60: If you are transporting a patient with known airborne disease you should?
  1. You should put a suspical mask on the patient
  2. Put an oxygen mask on the patient
  3. You should wait for hazechem team to arrive
  4. None of these
D
Q.61: Shock is caused by:
  1. Vomiting
  2. Heart Attack
  3. Nausea
  4. None of these
D
Q.62: You are attending a call as an EMT your patient is a 4 years male in moderate pain. What is the appropriate intervention?
  1. Ibuprofen 5mg
  2. Morphine PO
  3. Paracetamol 1 g PO
  4. None of these
D
Q.63: What is best treatment for second degree burn?
  1. Silva
  2. Acid
  3. Water
  4. All of the above
A
Q.64: Early defibrillation is -------- step of adult chain of survival.
  1. 01
  2. 02
  3. 03
  4. 04
A
Q.65: Standard Oxygen mask delivered upto------------Oxygen.
  1. 60%
  2. 80%
  3. 100%
  4. 120%
A
Q.66: CBC stands for:
  1. Complete Body Count
  2. Complete Blood Count
  3. Complete Blood Test
  4. None of these
B
Q.67: Disease that spread through blood and other bodily fluids are :
  1. Heart Attack
  2. HIV Aids
  3. Allergy
  4. COPD
B
Q.68: What is per minute pulse beat rate of an infant ?
  1. 60-80
  2. 80-100
  3. 100-120
  4. 110-140
D
Q.69: The blood vessels supply blood to heart muscles are :
  1. Coronary arteries
  2. Blood Capillaries
  3. Veins
  4. None of these
A
Q.70: Blue coloration of skin due to deficiency of Oxygen is called:
  1. Paral Morits
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Synchronization
  4. None of these
B
Q.71: Sudden numbness and weakness of face, limbs on one side of the body are signs and symptoms of:
  1. COPD
  2. Epilepsy
  3. Heart Attack
  4. Brain Stroke
D
Q.72: Compression and Ventilation ratio during CPR of adult patient?
  1. 02 : 30
  2. 30 : 02
  3. 32 : 04
  4. 35 : 10
B
Q.73: Malaria is a disease which effects the:
  1. Kidney
  2. Spleen
  3. Heart
  4. Lungs
B
Q.74: BT stands for:
  1. Bleeding Time
  2. Blood Time
  3. Bothe A & B
  4. None of these
A
Q.75: Site for gaseous exchange in human is :
  1. Alveolar Ducts
  2. Alveoli
  3. Bronchiole
  4. Bronchi
B
Q.76: Breathing is controlled by the :
  1. Ribs
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Lungs
  4. Neck
B
Q.77: During F.A.S.T assessment, “A” stands for :
  1. Arm Weakness
  2. Orthopedic
  3. Auto
  4. Area of Body
A
Q.78: The S.A.P.L.E formula of patient history, “M” stands for in this formula :
  1. Movement
  2. Medications
  3. Medical
  4. None of these
B
Q.79: The finger placement for Chest Compression is:
  1. Above the Nipple Line
  2. Below the Nipple Line
  3. Over the centre of Nipple Line
  4. None of these
C
Q.80: In the two rescuers adult CPR situation the ratio of compression to ventilation is :
  1. 10 : 30
  2. 30 : 02
  3. 30 : 02
  4. None of these
B
Q.81: CP stands for:
  1. Complete Picture of Blood
  2. Complete Picture
  3. Count Picture of Blood
  4. All of the above
A
Q.82: The dose of Aspirin for a patient with a suspected Heart Attack is --------.mg.
  1. 100
  2. 200
  3. 300
  4. 400
C
Q.83: In O.P.Q.R.S.T formula, the “S” stands for :
  1. Severe
  2. Shoulder
  3. Special
  4. None of these
A
Q.84: Opening of airway using head tilt chin left method in --------patients.
  1. Trauma
  2. Medical
  3. Both A & B
  4. None of these
B
Q.85: While performing FBAO on pregnant or obese, perform--------
  1. Arm Thrust
  2. Chest Thrust
  3. Abdominal Thrust
  4. Head Thrust
B
Q.86: Oxygen is an odorless & colorless gas, present in the atmosphere at --------and is essential for life.
  1. 21%
  2. 25%
  3. 20%
  4. 30%
A
Q.87: In heart muscle does not receive enough oxygen the condition is:
  1. Heart Attack
  2. Angina Pectoris
  3. Cyanosis
  4. None of these
B
Q.88: SGOT stands for:
  1. Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic
  2. Serum Gestro Oxaloacetic
  3. Special Gultamic Oxaloacetic
  4. None of these
A
Q.89: A wave of distention and elongation felt in blood walls due to contraction of left ventricle is:
  1. Pulse
  2. Pulse Rate
  3. Both A & B
  4. None of these
A
Q.90: Liquid component of blood is:
  1. Plasma
  2. WBCs
  3. RBCs
  4. Platelets
A
Q.91: AST stands for:
  1. All Aminotransferase
  2. Asparate Aminotransferase
  3. Actuall Aminotransferase
  4. None of these
B
Q.92: LFT stands for:
  1. Last Function Test
  2. Liver Function Test
  3. Lungs Function Test
  4. Living Function Test
B
Q.93: Do not suction longer then --------seconds in adult patient.
  1. 10
  2. 15
  3. 20
  4. 30
B
Q.94: Blood vessels that carry blood away from heart toward body tissues are called:
  1. Arteries
  2. Veins
  3. Lymph Vessels
  4. Capillaries
A
Q.95: Nasal Canola deliver Oxygen --------%
  1. 24-44
  2. 30-60
  3. 40-50
  4. 50-65
A
Q.96: Imaging yourself in other person’s situation is --------
  1. Great
  2. Empathize
  3. Empathy
  4. Sympathy
C
Q.97: During Infant CPR, if pulse rate is less then 60 with poor perfusion then --------
  1. Apply AED
  2. Ventilate
  3. Continue CPR
  4. All of the above
C
Q.98: The most initial rhythm in Sudden Cardiac Arrest is:
  1. A Systole
  2. Sinus Rhythm
  3. Ventricular Defibrillation
  4. None of these
C
Q.99: The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is:
  1. CPR
  2. Defibrillation
  3. Use of OPA
  4. Bandage
B
Q.100: The most common cause of upper airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient is:
  1. False Teeth
  2. A foreign body
  3. Vomiting
  4. A flaccid Tongue
D

The written test will be conducted in the form of a single paper MCQ test with 100 marks within the time limit of 90 minutes. As the syllabus for PPSC is based upon MBBS syllabus only, candidates must develop expertise in anatomy, physiology, pathology, pharmacology, microbiology, surgery, medicine, emergency medicine, cardiology, orthopedics, preventive medicine, and other branches of clinical sciences. Solving quality MCQs is the best strategy to improve speed and accuracy for the PPSC test.

EasyMCQs.com has prepared a complete set of MCQs for PPSC Senior Medical Officer with answers, according to the latest recruitment syllabus. Our online practice tests comprise medical MCQs, topic-wise MCQs, past paper PPSC medical officers’ questions, hospital-based clinical MCQs, and repeated MCQs from various competitive exams. Each of our MCQs is equipped with the correct answer.

Our quiz test through the SMOS quiz tests improves the candidates’ skills in managing time as well as building their confidence for the final exam. Whether you are preparing yourself on the fundamental knowledge of MBBS or going for the interview after clearing the written test, the study materials we offer help in each step of the recruiting process. The MCQs on our website are constantly updated following the current PPSC examination pattern, so that candidates can get the best study material.

For those who wish to apply for the position of the PPSC Senior Medical Officer, start practicing from today with our solved MCQs, past papers, medical study notes, and online quiz tests. Our mission is to offer free and quality preparation material that allows medical professionals to perform exceptionally well in the PPSC written examination and interview. Get the complete set of SMOS MCQs with answers from EasyMCQs.com for a better performance in the PPSC recruitment process.

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