Medical Science MCQs Online Quiz Test Online

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Medical Science MCQs

Objective type MCQs question answers In Medical Science related past papers. These MCQs are easy to learn by quiz tests online. Medical Jobs related question answers for exams preparations online with solved answers.

Medical Science Related MCQs With Answers For PPSC FPSC PMS Tests

Q.1: ------ is the partial or complete wasting away of a part of a body?
  1. Atrophy
  2. Leprosy
  3. Tetanus
  4. Noma
A
Q.2: Which of the following statements is true about drug Imodium?
  1. Slows the rate at which the stomach and oesophagus move
  2. Encourages water and electrolytes reabsorption
  3. Decrease density of stools
  4. None of these
B
Q.3: Hypovolaemia can be treated by?
  1. Oral replacement solution
  2. 5% dextrose
  3. Colloid Solution
  4. 0.6% Saline
C
Q.4: Effects of having Thiamine deficiency are?
  1. Muscle weakness
  2. Central nervous system and Cardiovascular problems
  3. Heart disease and Beri beri disease
  4. All of these
D
Q.5: When the Cardiac output decreased?
  1. On standing up
  2. On cutting the vagus nerves to the heart
  3. As a consequence of decreased pressure in the carotid sinus
  4. By increasing the end-diastolic volume of the heart
A
Q.6: Name of a bacterial disease with oral manifestations is?
  1. Measles
  2. Chicken pox
  3. Beri beri
  4. Diphtheria
D
Q.7: In which of the following disorders multinucleated giant cells are least likely to be found?
  1. Streptococcus pneumonia
  2. Sarcodosis
  3. Blast mycosis
  4. Autism
A
Q.8: Painless oral ulcers are associated with?
  1. Primary herpes
  2. Primary syphilis
  3. Secondary herpes
  4. Secondary syphilis
B
Q.9: Rigidity of facial muscles Rictus grin is associated with?
  1. Leprosy
  2. Tetany
  3. Tetanus
  4. Actinomycosis
C
Q.10: Noma is the name of complications of the infection?
  1. Vincent angina
  2. Beri beri
  3. Tooth infection
  4. None of these
A
Q.11: Leprosy is the other name of?
  1. Lichen planus
  2. Hansen’s disease
  3. Diabetes
  4. Phthisis
B
Q.12: Diuretics cause loss of?
  1. Iron
  2. Vitamin B
  3. Sodium
  4. Potassium
D
Q.13: Heroin, an addict drug contains?
  1. Pentazocine
  2. ASA
  3. Acetyl morphine
  4. Darvon
C
Q.14: Quinidine medicine is used to treat?
  1. Atrial fibrillation
  2. Hypertension
  3. Angina
  4. All of these
A
Q.15: Which of the following drugs are not useful in hypertension?
  1. Beta blockers
  2. Pentoxifyline
  3. Methyldopa
  4. None of these
B
Q.16: ----- is a peripherally acting muscle relaxant?
  1. Succinylcholine
  2. Methocarbamol
  3. Parafonforte
  4. None of these
A
Q.17: What are the symptoms of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
  1. Shortness of breathe
  2. Chest pain
  3. Fits
  4. Both A And B
D
Q.18: Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a blockage of an artery in the?
  1. Heart
  2. Lungs
  3. Liver
  4. None of the
B
Q.19: Pulmonary embolism (PE) can be treated by?
  1. Anticoagulants
  2. Thrombolysis
  3. Chemotherapy
  4. Both A And B
D
Q.20: HIV stands for?
  1. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
  2. Human Infectious Virus
  3. High Infectious virus
  4. None of these
A
Q.21: A condition of increased blood pressure within the arteries of the lungs?
  1. Pulmonary embolism (PE)
  2. Pulmonary hypertension (PH)
  3. Pulmonary edema
  4. None of these
B
Q.22: ----- is fluid accumulation in the tissue and air spaces of the lungs?
  1. Pulmonary embolism (PE)
  2. Pulmonary hypertension (PH)
  3. Pulmonary edema
  4. None of these
C
Q.23: Hypoxemia is an abnormally low level of ----- in the blood?
  1. Oxygen
  2. Red blood cells
  3. White blood cells
  4. Platelets
A
Q.24: ------ is a decrease in the total amount of red blood cells or haemoglobin in the blood?
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Anemia
  3. Thrombocythemia
  4. None of these
B
Q.25: Another name of Platelets is?
  1. Thrombocytes
  2. Bone marrow
  3. Megakaryocyte
  4. None of these
A
Q.26: ----- is the presence of a high platelet count in the blood?
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Anemia
  3. Thrombocythemia
  4. None of these
C
Q.27: ------ is the formation of a blood clot inside a blood vessel, obstructing the flow of blood through the circulatory system?
  1. Embolism
  2. Thrombosis
  3. Necrosis
  4. None of these
B
Q.28: Thrombocytopenia is a condition of abnormally low levels of ----- in the blood?
  1. Red blood cells
  2. White blood cells
  3. Platelets
  4. Oxygen
C
Q.29: ------ is a condition in which there is insufficient blood flow to the brain to meet metabolic demand?
  1. Brain ischemia
  2. Autism
  3. Cerebral hypoxia
  4. None of these
A
Q.30: When the brain is completely deprived of oxygen. It is called?
  1. Cerebral Ischemia
  2. Cerebral hypoxia
  3. Cerebral infraction
  4. Apoptosis
B


Chemistry Entry Tests Most Repeated MCQs With Answers

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Chemistry MCQs

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Chemistry Most Important Question Answers MCQs

Q.1: Each day human body breathe in ------- liters of air?
  1. 5,000 to 10,000
  2. 10,000 to 15,000
  3. 15,000 to 20,000
  4. 20,000 to 25,000
C
Q.2: The most abundant element in the universe is?
  1. Hydrogen
  2. Oxygen
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Silicon
A
Q.3: The substance which increases the rate of chemical reaction is?
  1. Metal
  2. Catalyst
  3. Alloy
  4. Enzymes
B
Q.4: The average human body contains about ------- gram of Sodium Chloride?
  1. 190
  2. 210
  3. 230
  4. 250
D
Q.5: pH is an abbreviation for?
  1. Power of Hydrogen
  2. Possibility of Hydrogen
  3. Population of Hydrogen
  4. Position of Hydrogen
A
Q.6: The best soil pH value for most crops and plants is?
  1. 4.5
  2. 5.5
  3. 6.5
  4. 7.5
C
Q.7: ---------- are biological catalysts?
  1. Enzymes
  2. Minerals
  3. Proteins
  4. Vitamins
A
Q.8: The most abundant constituent in Air is?
  1. Oxygen
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Carbondioxide
  4. Nitrogen
D
Q.9: Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different numbers of?
  1. Protons
  2. Electrons
  3. Neutrons
  4. Positron
C
Q.10: Over ---------- of the elements in the Periodic Table are Metals?
  1. 60%
  2. 65%
  3. 70%
  4. 75%
D
Q.11: Those substances which give hydroxyl ions in water are called?
  1. Acid
  2. Base
  3. Salts
  4. Alkalies
B
Q.12: Those substances which give hydrogen ions in water are called?
  1. Base
  2. Salts
  3. Neutral
  4. Acid
D
Q.13: KHSO4 is a ?
  1. Base
  2. Acid
  3. Neutral
  4. Salt
B
Q.14: Neutral solution has pH value of?
  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 14
C
Q.15: According to Bronsted, Acids are?
  1. Proton accepter
  2. Electron donor
  3. Proton donor
  4. Electron accepter
C
Q.16: NH3 is a/an?
  1. Acid
  2. Base
  3. Salts
  4. Neutral
B
Q.17: Salts are?
  1. Acid
  2. Base
  3. Alkalies
  4. Neutral
D
Q.18: Organic compounds are originated from ?
  1. Air
  2. Sun
  3. Rocks
  4. Living organisms
D
Q.19: -----------are insoluble in water?
  1. Alkanes
  2. Sugars
  3. Salts
  4. Starch
A
Q.20: Poly Hydroxyl compounds of Aldehyde and ketones are called ?
  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Protein
  3. Lipids
  4. Vitamin
A
Q.21: Wheat, rice, and honey are the sources of?
  1. Lipids
  2. Proteins
  3. Vitamin
  4. Carbohydrates
D
Q.22: Polymers of amino acids are called?
  1. Vitamin
  2. Proteins
  3. Lipids
  4. Maltose
B
Q.23: Nucleic acids are of --------types?
  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Five
A
Q.24: The two types of nucleic acids are DNA and?
  1. GNA
  2. RNA
  3. proteins
  4. lipids
B
Q.25: Fats and oils are example of ?
  1. Proteins
  2. Vitamin
  3. Lipids
  4. Carbohydrates
C
Q.26: The major component of troposphere is?
  1. Argon
  2. Carbon
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Nitrogen
D
Q.27: Ozone depletion causes?
  1. Blood Cancer
  2. Skin Cancer
  3. Malaria
  4. T.B
B
Q.28: The pH of the acid rains is less than?
  1. 5.6
  2. 5.1
  3. 4.6
  4. 4.1
A
Q.29: Ozone is a ------------ gas?
  1. Reddish
  2. Greenish
  3. Bluish
  4. Yellowish
C
Q.30: In water, ratio of oxygen and hydrogen by mass is?
  1. 1:3
  2. 2:1
  3. 1:2
  4. 8:1
D
Q.31: The pH of a neutral solution is?
  1. 5
  2. 7
  3. 10
  4. 14
B
Q.32: The pH of an acidic solution is ----- 7?
  1. less than
  2. greater than
  3. equal to
  4. and
A
Q.33: The branch of chemistry in which we study hydrocarbon and their derivatives is called?
  1. Organic chemistry
  2. Inorganic chemistry
  3. Industrial chemistry
  4. Biochemistry
A
Q.34: The metal present in combined state is called?
  1. solid
  2. compound
  3. mineral
  4. None of these
C
Q.35: Which of the following is homogeneous mixture?
  1. Smoke
  2. Fog
  3. Smog
  4. Air
D
Q.36: The atomic number of Hydrogen is?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 8
  4. 16
A
Q.37: Electron in its ground state does not?
  1. spin
  2. revolve
  3. reside in orbit
  4. radiate energy
D
Q.38: The number of periods in modern periodic table is?
  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8
C
Q.39: Which of the following is a transition element?
  1. Cu
  2. Cl
  3. S
  4. B
A
Q.40: Ink spreads in water because of?
  1. Vapor pressure
  2. Diffusion
  3. Dipole movement
  4. Osmosis
B
Q.41: The blister form of copper is the --------- form?
  1. Impure
  2. Raw
  3. Pure
  4. Refined
A
Q.42: Vitamin A is soluble in?
  1. Water
  2. Fats
  3. Both A And B
  4. None of these
B
Q.43: Vitamin B is soluble in?
  1. Water
  2. Fats
  3. Both A And B
  4. None of these
A
Q.44: The atomic number of an element is the number of ----- in the ----- of an atom?
  1. electrons, first shell
  2. electrons, last shell
  3. neutrons, nucleus
  4. protons, nucleus
D
Q.45: An element is a substance whose atoms all have the same?
  1. neutrons
  2. electrons
  3. atomic number
  4. mass number
C
Q.46: Mutation is a sudden chemical change in?
  1. DNA
  2. RNA
  3. Cell
  4. Cell wall
A
Q.47: Amino acids are the building blocks of?
  1. Fats
  2. Vitamins
  3. Proteins
  4. Lipids
C
Q.48: Organic chemistry is the study of?
  1. Carbon
  2. Metal
  3. Oxygen
  4. Carbon and its compounds
D
Q.49: Enzymes are made of?
  1. Proteins
  2. Lipids
  3. Fats
  4. Minerals
A
Q.50: Acidic rain is caused by?
  1. Nitrogen oxide
  2. Sulfur Dioxide
  3. Carbonic Acid
  4. Both
  5. and
D
Q.51: Lower the pH value, --------- will be an acid?
  1. weaker
  2. neutral
  3. stronger
  4. none of these
C
Q.52: Which of the following is an organic compound ?
  1. CO
  2. C2H2
  3. CO2
  4. NaHCO3
B
Q.53: Which one of the following is the general formula of alkenes?
  1. CnH2n
  2. CnH2n–1
  3. CnH2n+1
  4. CnHn
B
Q.54: The Homologues has the same?
  1. density
  2. state
  3. chemical properties
  4. colour
C
Q.55: Carbon atom usually?
  1. gains four electron
  2. loses four electrons
  3. ionizes
  4. forms four covalent bonds
D
Q.56: Organic radical with general formula CnH2n+1 is?
  1. Allyl
  2. Alkyl
  3. Pheny
  4. Benzyl
B
Q.57: The next homologue of C8H18 is?
  1. C9H20
  2. C9H18
  3. C8H16
  4. C7H14
A
Q.58: Methane is the first member of?
  1. Alcohol Series
  2. Carboxylic acids Series
  3. Alkane Series
  4. Alkene Series
C
Q.59: The compound C3H8 (Propane) must have?
  1. An ionic bond
  2. At least one triple bond
  3. All single bonds
  4. At least one double bond
C
Q.60: The name of C6H14 is ?
  1. Hexane
  2. Decane
  3. Propane
  4. Heptanes
A
Q.61: Which of the following organic compound has different chemical properties?
  1. C2H5COOH
  2. CH3OH
  3. C5H11OH
  4. C2H5OH
A
Q.62: Which of the following is inorganic?
  1. NaCN
  2. CH3CL
  3. CH4
  4. CH3OH
A
Q.63: Dehydration of ethanol with concentrated sulfuric acid results in the formation of?
  1. Methane
  2. Ethene
  3. Ethane
  4. Acetylene
B
Q.64: Which one of the following reagents distinguished ethene from acetylene?
  1. Bromine solution
  2. AgNO3
  3. Alcoholic KOH
  4. Carbon tetrachloride solution
B
Q.65: Which one of the following decolonizes Br2 Water?
  1. MethaneEthene
  2. Propane
  3. Ethane
  4. Ethene
D
Q.66: When ethene reacts with HBr, the compound formed is?
  1. Br-CH2-CH2-Br
  2. CH3-CH2-Br
  3. Acetylene
  4. CH3-CH2-CH3
B
Q.67: Which of the following statement is not true for alkynes?
  1. They do not perform Baeyer’s Test
  2. They undergo addition reaction
  3. They burn to form CO2
  4. They contain a triple bond
A
Q.68: All the member of alkane series has?
  1. All types of bonds
  2. All single bonds
  3. At least one double bond
  4. At least one triple bond
B
Q.69: Baeyer’s reagent is?
  1. Acidic KMnO4
  2. Hot KMnO4
  3. Concentrated KMnO4
  4. Alkaline KMnO4
D
Q.70: Which one gives carboxylic acid with alkaline KMnO4 ?
  1. Ethane
  2. Ethene
  3. Acetylene
  4. Methane
C
Q.71: Which one gives a mixture of hydrocarbons on halogenations ?
  1. Ethane
  2. Ethyl alcohol
  3. Ethene
  4. Ethyne
D
Q.72: Baeyer’s test shows the presence of ?
  1. A double bond
  2. A triple bond
  3. Both A and B
  4. No bond
C
Q.73: Which one is the least reactive ?
  1. Propane
  2. Ethene
  3. Ethyne
  4. Ethane
D
Q.74: Ethane reacts with chlorine in the presence of ?
  1. Sunlight
  2. Water
  3. Carbon tetra chloride
  4. Ether
A
Q.75: ----------- is a factor related to blood clotting?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin K
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin E
B
Q.76: The coldest region of the Earth’s atmosphere is?
  1. Mesopause
  2. Stratosphere
  3. Tropopause
  4. Stratopause
A
Q.77: The melting point of water is -------- degree Celsius?
  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 100
A
Q.78: The total volume of water present on the Earth surface is?
  1. 1.386 km3
  2. 1.386 million km3
  3. 1.386 billion km3
  4. 1.386 trillion km3
C
Q.79: The vital function of protoplasm is due to the presence of?
  1. calcium
  2. fats
  3. minerals
  4. water
D
Q.80: The quantity of fresh water present on the Earth’s surface is about?
  1. 0.25%
  2. 2.5%
  3. 12.25%
  4. 25.5%
B
Q.81: The reason of unusual physical properties of water is due to the presence of?
  1. Covalent bond
  2. Coordinate covalent Bond
  3. Hydrogen bonding
  4. None of these
C
Q.82: The density of water is one gram per centimeter cube at?
  1. 60 °C
  2. 4 °C
  3. 100 °C
  4. 0 °C
B
Q.83: The enormous quantity of water present on earth surface acts as giant thermostat due to its high?
  1. Density
  2. Boiling Point
  3. Latent heat values
  4. Heat Capacity
D
Q.84: The “latent heat of fusion” of water is?
  1. 4.01 kj/mol
  2. 5.01 kj/mol
  3. 6.01 kj/mol
  4. 7.01 kj/mol
C
Q.85: Dielectric constant of water at 18 °C is?
  1. 80
  2. 90
  3. 100
  4. 110
A
Q.86: Water gas is a mixture of?
  1. Hydrogen and Oxygen
  2. Hydrogen and Carbon monoxide
  3. Water and Air
  4. Steam and Air
B
Q.87: Chlorine act as a bleaching agent in the presence of?
  1. HNO3
  2. NaOH
  3. HCL
  4. H2O
D
Q.88: The chemical formula of magnetic oxide is?
  1. Fe3O4
  2. Fe2O3.H2O
  3. Fe2O3
  4. FeO
A
Q.89: Rain water is acidic in nature because air contains?
  1. Oxygen
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. All of these
C
Q.90: Nutrient pollution of water bodies is caused by?
  1. pathogens
  2. acid rain
  3. calcium and magnesium
  4. nitrogen and phosphorus
D
Q.91: Most of the aquatic animals cannot survive above?
  1. 30 °C
  2. 35 °C
  3. 50 °C
  4. 44 °C
A
Q.92: Which one of the following disease is caused by mercury?
  1. Typhoid
  2. Cholera
  3. Hepatitis
  4. Parkinson
D
Q.93: The blister copper is refined by?
  1. Boiling
  2. Concentration
  3. Electrolysis
  4. Reduction
C
Q.94: Chemical formula of Urea is?
  1. NH2CONH2
  2. Na2CO3
  3. NH2COONH4
  4. NH4CL
A
Q.95: Sodium carbonate is commercially manufactured by?
  1. Ostwald’s Process
  2. Haber’s Process
  3. Frisch Process
  4. Solvay Process
D
Q.96: Urea is widely used in fertilizers as a source of?
  1. Biomass
  2. Sulfur
  3. Phosphate
  4. nitrogen
D
Q.97: Petroleum is a mixture of many?
  1. Salt
  2. Hydrocarbons
  3. Hydroxide
  4. Acids
B
Q.98: Raw materials used for manufacturing urea are?
  1. CO2 and NH3
  2. H2 and NH3
  3. HCL and NH3
  4. OH and NH3
A
Q.99: Which one is a step of metallurgical process ?
  1. Rustin
  2. Crystallization
  3. Roasting
  4. None of these
C
Q.100: Different fractions of petroleum are separated by ?
  1. Cooling
  2. Fractional Distillation
  3. Steam distillation
  4. None of these
B
Q.101: The mass number is the total number of ----- and ----- in nucleus of an atom?
  1. protons, neutrons
  2. protons, electrons
  3. neutrons, electrons
  4. electrons, positrons
A
Q.102: Isotopes are atoms whose nucleus have the same number of ----- but different number of -----?
  1. protons, neutrons
  2. protons, electrons
  3. neutrons, electrons
  4. electrons, positrons
A
Q.103: The atomic mass unit (amu) is equal to?
  1. 1.66054×10–15 kg
  2. 1.66054×10–19 kg
  3. 1.66054×10–23 kg
  4. 1.66054×10–27 kg
D
Q.104: Burning of sodium in chlorine produces?
  1. clouds
  2. pencil
  3. salt
  4. smoke
C
Q.105: The molecular formula of surcose (sugar or table sugar) is?
  1. C6H12O6
  2. C12H22O11
  3. C6H12
  4. C12H22
B
Q.106: An electrolyte is a substance that produces ----- solution when dissolved in water?
  1. conducting
  2. nonconducting
  3. poorly conducting
  4. B and C
A
Q.107: A ----- consists of the elements in any one horizontal row of the periodic table?
  1. block
  2. base
  3. group
  4. period
D
Q.108: A ----- consists of the elements in any one column of the periodic table?
  1. block
  2. base
  3. group
  4. period
C
Q.109: One atomic mass unit (amu) is a mass unit equal to exactly one-twelth the mass of a ----- atom?
  1. carbon-8
  2. carbon-12
  3. carbon-16
  4. carbon-20
B
Q.110: Vitamin -------- is also called ascorbic acid?
  1. D
  2. A
  3. E
  4. C
D
Q.111: The first period of elements consists of only?
  1. hydrogen
  2. hydrogen and helium
  3. hydrogen and oxygen
  4. hydrogen and nitrogen
B
Q.112: The elements in any one group have similar?
  1. atomic number
  2. mass number
  3. properties
  4. radioactivity
C
Q.113: The only nonmetal element that exists in liquid form is?
  1. Bromine
  2. Mercury
  3. Calcium
  4. Platinum
A
Q.114: All metallic elements are solid at room temperature except for?
  1. Lithium
  2. Mercury
  3. Calcium
  4. Platinum
B
Q.115: The chemical formula of aluminium oxide is?
  1. Al3O2
  2. Al3O3
  3. Al2O2
  4. Al2O3
D
Q.116: The elements in group 1A are known as?
  1. alkanes
  2. alkenes
  3. alkali metals
  4. halogens
C
Q.117: The elements in group 7A are known as?
  1. alkanes
  2. alkenes
  3. alkali metals
  4. halogens
B
Q.118: A periodic table is showing the element Sodium as below. What is atomic number and mass number of the element sodium?
  1. Atomic Number = 11 and Mass Number = 23
  2. Atomic Number = 23 and Mass Number = 11
  3. Atomic Number = 11 and Electronegativity = 23
  4. Atomic Number = 11 and Valency = 23
A
Q.119: The molecular formula of methanol?
  1. CH2OH
  2. CH3OH
  3. CH2Cl3
  4. CH3Cl2
D
Q.120: The molecular formula of glucose?
  1. C6H11O5
  2. C6H12O5
  3. C6H11O6
  4. C6H12O6
B

PPSC Statistics Past Papers Most Repeated MCQs With Answers

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Everyday Science Jobs Entry Test MCQs

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Everyday Science MCQs

Most repeated Federal Public Service Commission and Punjab Public Service Commission exams test MCQs with solved answers. These MCQs are easily to learn by these objective type question answers online. Everyday Science National Testing Service MCQs with answers for MCAT, ECAT, NAT, GAT and others College Universities Entrance exams test.

Everyday Science MCQs Online Question Answers For Entry Test

Q.1: Which is the largest excretory organ of the body?
  1. lungs
  2. skin
  3. liver
  4. none of these
B
Q.2: The brain is enclosed in a bony case called?
  1. diaphragam
  2. vertebral column
  3. cranium
  4. vertebrae
C
Q.3: Which is the bone that is present in forelimb?
  1. radius
  2. femur
  3. ribs
  4. sternum
A
Q.4: Which one is herbivore?
  1. cat
  2. dog
  3. cow
  4. lion
C
Q.5: Which structure helps in transport of water in plants?
  1. phloem
  2. leaf
  3. bark
  4. xylem
D
Q.6: The organisms that can make their own food are called?
  1. producers
  2. consumers
  3. secondary consumers
  4. decomposers
A
Q.7: Bacteria are?
  1. eukaryotes
  2. prokaryotes
  3. non-living
  4. none of these
B
Q.8: Bile juice is secreted by?
  1. pancreas
  2. stomach
  3. intestine
  4. gall bladder
D
Q.9: Which part of the blood cells provide immunity?
  1. RBC
  2. WBC
  3. platelet
  4. blood plasma
B
Q.10: Which structure prevent water loss in plants?
  1. cuticle
  2. bark
  3. mesophyll
  4. leaf
A
Q.11: DNA structure was first described by?
  1. Pasteur
  2. Robert Koch
  3. Robert Koch
  4. Carlous Linnaues
C
Q.12: Pollination is best defined as?
  1. germination of pollen grains
  2. transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
  3. formation of pollen grains
  4. none of these
A
Q.13: Movement of cell against concentration gradient is called?
  1. active transport
  2. osmosis
  3. diffusion
  4. both b and c
A
Q.14: One of the following is not a function of bones?
  1. support
  2. production of blood cells
  3. protein synthesis
  4. muscle attachment
C
Q.15: Plants absorb most part of water needed by them through their?
  1. stem
  2. root hairs
  3. leaf
  4. bark
B
Q.16: Highly intelligent mammals are?
  1. rat
  2. bat
  3. dolphin
  4. elephant
C
Q.17: Process of cell division take place by?
  1. mitosis
  2. fertilization
  3. reproduction
  4. none of these
A
Q.18: Prokaryotic cell lack?
  1. nucleolus
  2. nuclear membrane
  3. both a and b
  4. none of these
C
Q.19: Pulses are a good source of?
  1. proteins
  2. carbohydrates
  3. vitamins
  4. minerals
A
Q.20: Plants that grow in dry habitat are called?
  1. hydrophytes
  2. xerophytes
  3. shrubs
  4. herbs
B
Q.21: Oxygen released in the process of photosynthesis comes from?
  1. water
  2. oxygen
  3. carbon dioxide
  4. nitrogen dioxide
A
Q.22: Phloem tissue is found in?
  1. liver
  2. placenta
  3. plants
  4. none of these
C
Q.23: Plant bends towards the source of light on account of the movement known as?
  1. geotropism
  2. hydrotropism
  3. chemotropism
  4. phototropism
D
Q.24: Animal lacks?
  1. starch
  2. cellulose
  3. protein
  4. lipids
B
Q.25: On which of the following plants did Gregor Mendal perform his classical experiment?
  1. corn
  2. mustard
  3. pea
  4. sunflower
C
Q.26: Among the biotic components of the ecosystem, the producer system is?
  1. carnivores
  2. herbivores
  3. plants
  4. animals
C
Q.27: Breeding and management of bees is known?
  1. agriculture
  2. sericulture
  3. horticulture
  4. apiculture
D
Q.28: Study of fossils is called?
  1. psychology
  2. paleontology
  3. biodiversity
  4. haematology
B
Q.29: Which is an example of fungi?
  1. paramecium
  2. euglena
  3. penicillium
  4. octopus
C
Q.30: The scientific name of human is?
  1. Homo sapiens
  2. Homo habiscus
  3. Oriza sativa
  4. none of these
A
Q.31: Thread like structures in fungi are called?
  1. mycelium
  2. hyphae
  3. sporangium
  4. spores
B
Q.32: The smallest bacteria on earth is?
  1. mycoplasma
  2. E.coli
  3. salmonella
  4. clostridium
A
Q.33: Vaccine for rabies was developed by?
  1. Robert Koch
  2. Robert Brown
  3. Pasteur
  4. none of these
C
Q.34: Malaria is caused by?
  1. mosquito
  2. plasmodium
  3. virus
  4. bacteria
B
Q.35: Hepatitis is inflammation of?
  1. stomach
  2. kidney
  3. lungs
  4. liver
D
Q.36: Penicillin is obtained from?
  1. soil
  2. bacteria
  3. fungi
  4. virus
C
Q.37: Which one is endoparasite?
  1. lice
  2. ticks
  3. virus
  4. tape worm
D
Q.38: Fructose is?
  1. pentose sugar
  2. hexose sugar
  3. heptose sugar
  4. none of these
A
Q.39: Peptide bond is a?
  1. C-N link
  2. N-H link
  3. C-O link
  4. N-O link
B
Q.40: Which statement is correct about enzymes?
  1. protein in nature
  2. speed up reaction
  3. denature at high temperature
  4. all of these
D
Q.41: Which is called power house of the cell?
  1. golgi complex
  2. mitochondria
  3. nucleus
  4. endoplasmic reticulum
B
Q.42: The structure that is absent in animal cell?
  1. cell wall
  2. nulcleus
  3. centriole
  4. mitochondria
A
Q.43: The non-protein part of enzyme is called?
  1. co-enzyme
  2. activator
  3. cofactor
  4. substrate
C
Q.44: Nucleic acid were first isolated by?
  1. Erwin Chargaff
  2. Friedrich Miescher
  3. Rosalind Franklin
  4. none of these
B
Q.45: One of the following is not pyrimidine?
  1. thymine
  2. cytosine
  3. guanine
  4. uracil
C
Q.46: Fructose is?
  1. milk sugar
  2. cereal sugar
  3. aldo sugar
  4. keto sugar
D
Q.47: Group of tissues doing a particular job?
  1. organ
  2. system
  3. organelle
  4. individual
A
Q.48: Members of the same species living in the same place at the same time make?
  1. population
  2. ecosystem
  3. community
  4. trophic level
C
Q.49: Which one is a leukocyte?
  1. red blood cell
  2. plasma cell
  3. monocyte
  4. all of these
C
Q.50: Which one of the following contain deoxygenated blood?
  1. pulmonary artery
  2. hepatic artery
  3. left atrium
  4. none of these
A
Q.51: In most plants the food is transported in the form of?
  1. fructose
  2. sucrose
  3. starch
  4. glucose
B
Q.52: How many molecules of carbon dioxide are formed in one Kreb’s cycle?
  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 1
C
Q.53: Which enzyme digest carbohydrates?
  1. lipase
  2. proteases
  3. amylases
  4. none of these
C
Q.54: The pancreas produce digestive enzymes and release in the?
  1. stomach
  2. esophagus
  3. large intestine
  4. small intestine
D
Q.55: Detail study of internal organs at level of tissue with the help of microscope is called?
  1. histology
  2. anatomy
  3. physiology
  4. embryology
A
Q.56: The exchange of chromosal segments i.e.crossing over occurs during?
  1. first meiotic division
  2. mitotic division
  3. second meiotic division
  4. none of these
A
Q.57: Many bacteria in our digestive system synthesize vitamins for example vitamin?
  1. B1
  2. B2
  3. B12
  4. B6
C
Q.58: It is very serious disease of brain which is caused by fungi?
  1. ring worm
  2. meningitis
  3. hepatitis
  4. none of these
B
Q.59: They are widespread as protective coatings on fruits and leaves?
  1. cholesterol
  2. waxes
  3. chitin
  4. all of these
B
Q.60: Which from the following are present in the underground parts of the plants and stored food?
  1. leucoplast
  2. chromoplast
  3. chloroplast
  4. stem
A
Q.61: The simplest amino acid is?
  1. alanine
  2. glycine
  3. valine
  4. phenylalanine
B
Q.62: Accumulation of lipid molecules in brain cells lead to?
  1. paralysis
  2. oedema
  3. mental retardation
  4. all of these
C
Q.63: The life and activities of a cell is controlled by?
  1. cytoplasm
  2. nucleus
  3. vacuole
  4. mitochondria
B
Q.64: Flagella are composed of?
  1. micro tubules
  2. micro filaments
  3. intermediate filaments
  4. glycoproteins
A
Q.65: Tobacco mosaic virus was crystallized by?
  1. Pasteur
  2. Chamberland
  3. Stanely
  4. Ivanowski
C
Q.66: Non-enveloped naked viruses are known as?
  1. prions
  2. bacteriophages
  3. oncoviruses
  4. virions
D
Q.67: Gram +ve bacteria on treatment with crystal violet dye give colour?
  1. red
  2. green
  3. purple
  4. pink
C
Q.68: Malarial parasite is injected into man as?
  1. sporozoites
  2. merozoites
  3. zygote
  4. none of these
A
Q.69: The terms procariotique and eucariotique were proposed by?
  1. Whittaker
  2. Chatton
  3. Haeckel
  4. Margulis and Schwartz
B
Q.70: In many which phylum the body of an organisms is usually divided in there regions called head, thorax and abdomen?
  1. echinodermata
  2. mollusca
  3. nematoda
  4. arthropoda
D
Q.71: The most common type of asexual reproduction in the fungi is?
  1. fragmentation
  2. spore production
  3. budding
  4. binary fission
B
Q.72: Outside the thallus of Marchantia there are special structures called?
  1. stem tuber
  2. rhizoids
  3. sporangium
  4. none of these
B
Q.73: The vascular plants are termed as?
  1. tracheophytes
  2. bryophytes
  3. pteridophytes
  4. all of these
A
Q.74: In human beings influenza is caused by?
  1. bacteria
  2. protist
  3. virus
  4. fungi
C
Q.75: Snails belong to?
  1. gastropods
  2. bivalves
  3. arthropods
  4. platyhelminthes
A
Q.76: Amoeba moves in water with the help of locomotory organs called?
  1. tube feet
  2. cilia
  3. pseudopodia
  4. flagella
C
Q.77: Liver fluke is parasite in the liver of?
  1. cattle
  2. sheep
  3. goat
  4. all of these
D
Q.78: In all coelentrates endoderm give rise to?
  1. nervous system
  2. digestive system
  3. reproductive system
  4. circulatory system
B
Q.79: Higher vascular plants are also called?
  1. flowering plants
  2. seed plants
  3. ferns
  4. none of these
B
Q.80: The plants which produce embryo but lack vascular tissues and seeds are placed in?
  1. bryophytes
  2. pteridophytes
  3. tracheophytes
  4. all of these
A
Q.81: Which bone is called beauty bone in women?
  1. sternum
  2. clavicle
  3. maxilla
  4. radius
B
Q.82: Detachment of myosin head and actin in rigor mortis occurs due to?
  1. stored ATP in body
  2. hypercalcemia
  3. autolysis in body
  4. hyperactivity of mitochondria
C
Q.83: Release of the ovum from ovary is called?
  1. fertilization
  2. ovulation
  3. implantation
  4. none of these
B
Q.84: The foetus is protected from the mechanical damage by the?
  1. cervix
  2. vagina
  3. uterus
  4. amniotic fluid
D
Q.85: Rich source of energy in seimen is?
  1. glucose
  2. fructose
  3. lactose
  4. sacrose
A
Q.86: Sickle cell anemia was discovered by?
  1. Vernon Ingram
  2. Sanger
  3. Miescher
  4. none of these
A
Q.87: Earthworm lives in?
  1. sea water
  2. moist soil
  3. fresh water
  4. none of these
B
Q.88: Kangaroo has an abdominal pouch known as?
  1. placenta
  2. guttural pouch
  3. marsupial
  4. all of these
C
Q.89: The utilization of the products of digestion is called?
  1. ingestion
  2. absorption
  3. assimilation
  4. both a and b
C
Q.90: Parabronchi are present in?
  1. cockroach
  2. frog
  3. fish
  4. birds
D
Q.91: The respiratory problem most common in smokers is?
  1. tuberculosis
  2. emphysema
  3. asthma
  4. cancer
B
Q.92: Water potential of pure water is?
  1. zero
  2. one
  3. negative
  4. two
A
Q.93: Bean shaped cells in plants are?
  1. mesophyll cells
  2. xylem cells
  3. phloem cells
  4. guard cells
D
Q.94: The normal pH of human blood is?
  1. 6.4
  2. 7.0
  3. 7.4
  4. 7.5
C
Q.95: Shrinkage of protoplast due to exosmosis of water is?
  1. imbibition
  2. plasmolysis
  3. deplasmolysis
  4. adhesion
B
Q.96: Artherosclerosis is a major condition leading to?
  1. heart attack
  2. hypertension
  3. stroke
  4. tumor
A
Q.97: Villi and microvilli increase?
  1. digestion
  2. assimilation
  3. absorption
  4. ingestion
C
Q.98: Splitting of glucose relates to?
  1. respiration
  2. photorespiration
  3. glycolysis
  4. pyruvic acid
C
Q.99: Reptiles hibernate during?
  1. summer
  2. winter
  3. spring
  4. autumn
B
Q.100: Which of the following plants are called arthrophytes?
  1. sphenopsids
  2. lycopsids
  3. psilopsids
  4. pteropsids
A

Everyday Science PPSC Most Important MCQs

Everyday Scinece Past Papers most important Objective type MCQs quiz tests learn here. All of these MCQs are helpful for exams and upcoming jobs tests of PPSC, FPSC, CSS, PMS, NTS, PTS, OTS, ACCA, MCAT, ECAT, GAT, Nust, Army jobs, Medical jobs and many other jobs tests preparations MCQs with solved answers.

Everyday Science MCQs


Most repeated and mostly asked question answers for Public Service Commission Government Jobs tests MCQs learn here. these MCQs are important and very helpful for upcoming tests.
Q.1: One way of transfer of heat energy is ‘convection’ which occurs in?
  1. Liquids only
  2. Gasses only
  3. Liquids and gasses
  4. Liquids, gasses and solids
C
Q.2: Which from the following is incompressible?
  1. Solids
  2. Liquids
  3. Gasses
  4. All are compressible
B
Q.3: The key factor in determining the weather is the quantity of -------- in the atmosphere?
  1. Water vapour
  2. Oxygen
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Hydrogen
A
Q.4: The entropy of the universe is?
  1. Increasing
  2. Decreasing
  3. Constant
  4. None of these
A
Q.5: Which from the following methods of heat transfer can take place in a vacuum?
  1. Conduction
  2. Convection
  3. Radiation
  4. All of the above
C
Q.6: Neutrons were discovered by?
  1. Einstein
  2. James Chadwick
  3. F.W. Aston
  4. Rutherford
B
Q.7: Mass Spectrograph was invented by?
  1. Einstein
  2. James Chadwick
  3. F.W. Aston
  4. Rutherford
C
Q.8: Nucleus was discovered by?
  1. Einstein
  2. James Chadwick
  3. F.W. Aston
  4. Rutherford
D
Q.9: Which is the process of science?
  1. Observation > Experiments > Hypothesis
  2. Hypothesis > Observations > Experiments
  3. Observation > Hypothesis > Experiments
  4. Experiments > Observations > Hypothesis
C
Q.10: Salty water can be made pure by the method of?
  1. filtration
  2. evaporation
  3. chromatography
  4. distillation
B
Q.11: The unit of efficiency is?
  1. Volt
  2. Watt
  3. Joules
  4. None of these
D
Q.12: Which from the following is NOT a stored energy?
  1. Thermal
  2. Gravitational
  3. Elastic potential energy
  4. Chemical
A
Q.13: Energy can be converted from one form to another, but all energy ends up as?
  1. Kinetic energy
  2. Potential energy
  3. Heat energy
  4. Chemical energy
C
Q.14: A battery converts -------- into electrical energy?
  1. Potential energy
  2. Chemical energy
  3. Nuclear energy
  4. Mechanical energy
B
Q.15: Which from the following is NOT a renewable energy resource?
  1. Geothermal
  2. Biomass
  3. Solar
  4. Nuclear
D
Q.16: Which from the following is NOT a non-renewable energy resource?
  1. Coal
  2. Natural gas
  3. Nuclear
  4. Geothermal
D
Q.17: Current is the flow of?
  1. Electrons
  2. Protons
  3. Neutrons
  4. Voltage
A
Q.18: The unit of current is?
  1. Volt
  2. Ampere
  3. Ohm
  4. Watt
B
Q.19: To prevent electric shocks, a/an -------- is placed in the circuit?
  1. Ammeter
  2. Voltmeter
  3. Fuse
  4. Diode
C
Q.20: Electrons were discovered by?
  1. James Chadwick
  2. J.J. Thomson
  3. F.W. Aston
  4. Rutherford
B
Q.21: When molten rock cools and solidifies, the -------- are formed?
  1. igneous rocks
  2. sedimentary rocks
  3. metamorphic rocks
  4. none of these
A
Q.22: Molten rock below the surface of the Earth is called?
  1. Lava
  2. Magma
  3. Crystals
  4. Granite
B
Q.23: Molten rock above the surface of the Earth is called?
  1. Lava
  2. Magma
  3. Crystals
  4. Granite
A
Q.24: The metal which is liquid at room temperature is?
  1. Zinc
  2. Nickel
  3. Lead
  4. Mercury
D
Q.25: Between the melting point and boiling point of a substance, the substance is a?
  1. Solid
  2. Liquid
  3. Gas
  4. Crystal
B
Q.26: The boiling point of alcohol is?
  1. 78 °C
  2. 86 °C
  3. 94 °C
  4. 100 °C
A
Q.27: The visible cloud of dust and gas in space is called?
  1. White Dwarf
  2. Supernova
  3. Nebula
  4. Galaxy
C
Q.28: The average salinity of the Earth’s oceans in 1 kilogram of sea water is about -------- grams of salt?
  1. 90
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 35
D
Q.29: The most abundant substance that constitutes the mass of the Earth is?
  1. Iron
  2. Oxygen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Silicon
A
Q.30: The Earth’s atmosphere is divided into -------- main layers?
  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7
B
Q.31: Rocks which are formed by high temperature and pressure on existing rocks over a period of time are called -------- rocks?
  1. igneous
  2. metamorphic
  3. sedimentary
  4. crystal
B
Q.32: Marble and slate are examples of?
  1. igneous rocks
  2. metamorphic rocks
  3. sedimentary rocks
  4. crystals
B
Q.33: Sandstone and limestone are examples of?
  1. igneous rocks
  2. metamorphic rocks
  3. sedimentary rocks
  4. crystals
C
Q.34: Absolute zero, which is the lower limit of the thermodynamic temperature scale, is equivalent to -------- on the Celsius scale?
  1. 273 °C
  2. 0 °C
  3. 100 °C
  4. 973 °C
A
Q.35: The diameter of the Earth’s equator is larger than the pole-to-pole diameter by?
  1. 40 km
  2. 43 km
  3. 46 km
  4. 49 km
B
Q.36: The Tectonic Plates of the Earth lies in?
  1. Inner Core
  2. Outer Core
  3. Lithosphere
  4. Asthenosphere
C
Q.37: There are -------- major tectonic plates?
  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7
D
Q.38: The fresh water on the Earth is -------- of the total water?
  1. 2.5%
  2. 5%
  3. 7.5%
  4. 10%
A
Q.39: The Ozone Layer lies in the?
  1. troposphere
  2. stratosphere
  3. mesosphere
  4. thermosphere
B
Q.40: The Earth’s atmosphere is divided into -------- layers?
  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7
B
Q.41: Which type of rock may contain fossils?
  1. Igneous
  2. Metamorphic
  3. Sedimentary
  4. Crystals
C
Q.42: The mass is highly concentrated form of?
  1. Weight
  2. Energy
  3. Force
  4. Momentum
B
Q.43: The whole Earth can be covered by -------- geo-stationary satellites?
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
A
Q.44: The ozone layer is at height of -------- kilometers from the surface of the Earth?
  1. 10 to 20
  2. 20 to 30
  3. 30 to 40
  4. 40 to 50
B
Q.45: The ozone layer was discovered by?
  1. F.W. Aston and J.J Thomson
  2. Albert Einstein
  3. Rutherford
  4. Charles Fabry and Henri Buisson
D
Q.46: The interior structure of the Earth is divided into -------- layers?
  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 7
B
Q.47: We live on the Earth’s?
  1. Inner core
  2. Outer core
  3. Crust
  4. Mantle
C
Q.48: The thickest layer of the Earth is?
  1. Crust
  2. Inner core
  3. Outer core
  4. Mantle
D
Q.49: The outermost layer of the Earth is?
  1. Crust
  2. Inner mantle
  3. Outer mantle
  4. Core
A
Q.50: The Earth’s crust ranges from -------- km in depth?
  1. 0 – 5
  2. 5 – 10
  3. 5 – 70
  4. 10 – 70
C
Q.51: The Earth’s internal heat mainly comes from?
  1. Liquid hydrogen
  2. Chemical reactions
  3. Radioactive decay
  4. Molecular kinetic energy
C
Q.52: There are different seasons on the Earth because of?
  1. Rotation of the Earth
  2. Revolution of the Earth
  3. The Earth’s axis is tilted
  4. The Earth’s distance from the Sun
C
Q.53: On average, Air contains -------- % of water vapours?
  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 7
A
Q.54: Earth’s troposphere extends from the Earth’s surface to an average height of about -------- km?
  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. 17
B
Q.55: The science of lightning is called?
  1. Aerology
  2. Meteorology
  3. Electeorology
  4. Fulminology
D
Q.56: Ships use -------- to find the depth of the ocean beneath them?
  1. pitches
  2. echoes
  3. frequencies
  4. none of these
B
Q.57: Molecules with identical molecular formulae but with different structural formulae are called?
  1. Isomers
  2. Isotopes
  3. Atomic number
  4. Mass number
A
Q.58: The anode is the electrode connected to the -------- terminal of a battery?
  1. positive
  2. negative
  3. neutral
  4. free
A
Q.59: The unit used to measure humidity is?
  1. Barometer
  2. Hydrometer
  3. Hygrometer
  4. Galvanometer
C
Q.60: Laser was invented by?
  1. Alessandro Volta
  2. William Sturgeon
  3. Hero of Alexandria
  4. Theodore Maiman
D
Q.61: The vernier calipers is used to measure?
  1. Length
  2. Time
  3. Temperature
  4. Viscosity
A
Q.62: Atomic clock is used to measure ------ intervals of time?
  1. Very short
  2. Short
  3. Very long
  4. Long
A
Q.63: 1 tonne = -------- kg?
  1. 100
  2. 400
  3. 1000
  4. 4000
C
Q.64: An instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is?
  1. Ammeter
  2. Manometer
  3. Galvanometer
  4. Barometer
D
Q.65: An instrument used to measure gas pressure is?
  1. Ammeter
  2. Manometer
  3. Galvanometer
  4. Barometer
B
Q.66: Which electromagnetic wave has the longest wavelength?
  1. Gamma rays
  2. X-rays
  3. Microwaves
  4. Radio waves
D
Q.67: Which electromagnetic wave has the shortest wavelength?
  1. Gamma rays
  2. X-rays
  3. Microwaves
  4. Radio waves
A
Q.68: All electromagnetic waves have the same?
  1. Frequency
  2. Amplitude
  3. Wavelength in vacuum
  4. Speed in vacuum
D
Q.69: The reflection of sound is called?
  1. Frequency
  2. Vibration
  3. Echo
  4. Wave
C
Q.70: An instrument used to measure electric current is called?
  1. Ammeter
  2. Barometer
  3. Galvanometer
  4. Manometer
A
Q.71: The SI unit of thermodynamic temperature is?
  1. Celsius
  2. Fahrenheit
  3. Kelvin
  4. None of these
C
Q.72: The shortest distance between crest to crest is called?
  1. phase
  2. thoughs
  3. amplitude
  4. wavelength
D
Q.73: The speed of sound is fastest in?
  1. Solids
  2. Liquids
  3. Gasses
  4. Vacuum
A
Q.74: The speed of sound is slowest in?
  1. Solids
  2. Liquids
  3. Gasses
  4. Vacuum
C
Q.75: Radioactivity was discovered by?
  1. Henri Becquerel
  2. Pierre Curie
  3. Marie Curie
  4. Rutherford
A
Q.76: Which from the following has the greatest ionizing power?
  1. Alpha particles
  2. Beta particles
  3. Gamma rays
  4. All three has same ionizing power
A
Q.77: Which from the following has the greatest penetrating power?
  1. Alpha particles
  2. Beta particles
  3. Gamma rays
  4. All three have same penetrating power
C
Q.78: Which from the following has the greatest speed?
  1. Alpha
  2. Beta
  3. Gamma
  4. None of these
C
Q.79: At night?
  1. The land cools faster than the water in the sea
  2. The water in the sea cools faster than the land
  3. The land and the water in the sea cools together
  4. None of these
A
Q.80: The chemical name of chalk is?
  1. Sodium nitrate
  2. Zinc sulfate
  3. Sulphuric acid
  4. Calcium carbonate
D
Q.81: The branch of science which study the interaction between matter and radiant energy is called?
  1. Thermochemistry
  2. Polymer chemistry
  3. Spectroscopy
  4. Electrochemistry
C
Q.82: The horizontal rows of the periodic table are called?
  1. Groups
  2. Periods
  3. Sets
  4. Matrices
B
Q.83: The vertical columns of the periodic table are called?
  1. Groups
  2. Periods
  3. Sets
  4. Matrices
A
Q.84: Which metallic element is liquid at room temperature?
  1. Zinc
  2. Nickel
  3. Lead
  4. Mercury
D
Q.85: Which non-metallic element is liquid at room temperature?
  1. Bromine
  2. Flourine
  3. Chlorine
  4. Phosphorous
A
Q.86: Battery charger converts electrical energy into ------ energy?
  1. Kinetic
  2. Potential
  3. Chemical
  4. Nuclear
C
Q.87: A loudspeaker changes ------ energy into sound energy?
  1. Chemical
  2. Electrical
  3. Light
  4. Kinetic
B
Q.88: The strongest part(s) of a magnet is/are?
  1. North pole
  2. South pole
  3. North and south pole
  4. Median of north and south pole
C
Q.89: Electromagnetic induction was discovered by?
  1. Nicolas Carnot
  2. Alessandro Volta
  3. Michael Faraday
  4. Friedrich Bessel
C
Q.90: Battery was invented by?
  1. Nicolas Carnot
  2. Alessandro Volta
  3. Michael Faraday
  4. Friedrich Bessel
B
Q.91: The most abundant form of matter in the universe is?
  1. Solid
  2. Liquid
  3. Gas
  4. Plasma
D
Q.92: When gas is ionized, -------- forms?
  1. Molecule
  2. Element
  3. Plasma
  4. Current
C
Q.93: Wind is caused by?
  1. Difference in atmospheric pressure
  2. Difference in atmospheric temperature
  3. Rotation of the Earth
  4. Revolution of the Earth
A
Q.94: Wind speed is measured by?
  1. Anemometer
  2. Barometer
  3. Ceilometer
  4. Galvanometer
A
Q.95: The fact that universe is expanding was discovered by?
  1. Hahn
  2. Hubble
  3. Rontgen
  4. Rutherford
B
Q.96: X-rays were discovered by?
  1. Otto Hahn
  2. Edwin Hubble
  3. Wilhelm Rontgen
  4. Ernest Rutherford
C
Q.97: The Nobel prize in physics for the discovery of the law of photoelectric effect was awarded to?
  1. Newton
  2. Einstein
  3. Rontgen
  4. Rutherford
B
Q.98: The symbol of gold is?
  1. Au
  2. Ag
  3. Fe
  4. Sg
A
Q.99: Plaster of Paris can be produced by heating?
  1. Graphite
  2. Gypsum
  3. Zinc
  4. Lead
B
Q.100: Which from the following is NOT true about Helium gas?
  1. Colourless
  2. Odorless
  3. Tasteless
  4. Toxic
D

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